US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
D	Overvoltage on the hot wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	1500 watts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
B	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
C	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
B	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Excessive background noise
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	80 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Control grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Screen grid

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A type-S to type-M adaptor
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	Transformers and transducers
D	All these choices are correct

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	A digital mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	Zero
C	45 degrees
D	90 degrees

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Beat frequency oscillator
B	RF input
C	Local oscillator
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By using the Varicode character set

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying its body capacitance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By varying the base loading inductance