US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It causes radiation poisoning
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	20 amperes

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	RF clipping level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Attenuator level

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
C	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
D	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Reduce long delayed echoes
C	Improve HF long path propagation
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A length of transmission line
C	A transformer
D	A Pi-network

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	24 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	1,000 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
B	Its conductivity
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Rolloff frequency
C	Cutoff frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	RF input
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	5:1

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The spacing of each element along the boom
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The physical length of the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Very high