US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its duty cycle
C	Its frequency
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	Outside the building
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	All these choices are correct
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	PEP output from the transmitter

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Only contest stations
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	A special hardware modem
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	28 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	14 days

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All these choices are correct
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The E region
C	The D region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A field strength meter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Clearly audible speech

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	530 watts
C	1500 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	7 millihenries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Screen grid

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Half-wave
D	Full-wave

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Q
C	Return loss
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
D	The opposite of fade margin

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	3 kHz

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long path propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	5:1
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	33 feet
C	24 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization