US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	All these choices are correct
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
B	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must be for other licensed amateurs
D	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It provides more power output
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	All these choices are correct
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	SK
C	AR
D	KN

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	14 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Short-path
C	Scatter
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	A ground loop
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	PL-259
C	Type N
D	BNC

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	AM
C	SSB
D	All these choices are correct

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Upper and lower half-power
B	Cutoff and rolloff
C	Pole and zero
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The opposite of fade margin
B	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
C	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
D	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Phase inversion
C	Heterodyning
D	Frequency inversion

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 dB over S9
B	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Coil the radials
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Gain increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Very low
C	Very high
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1