US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	All these choices are correct
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	365 days
D	180 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must be for other licensed amateurs
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	CW
D	USB

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	HF communication is improved
C	HF communication is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When high precision is desired
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 watts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Screen grid

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Reverse biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Power modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Balanced converter
C	Reactance modulator
D	Mixer

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 GHz
B	10.7 GHz
C	902 MHz
D	432 MHz

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Isotropic
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Inverted V
C	Lazy H
D	Sloper