US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	Only the ground wire
C	All wires
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	CW
D	USB

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve ground wave propagation

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the highest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The control computers
C	All these choices are correct
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	625 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	RCA Phono
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Modulation
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
B	The opposite of fade margin
C	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
D	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Image response
C	Mixer interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
B	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Polarization diversity
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna