US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	20 amperes
C	25 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	17 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The IEEE
C	The FCC
D	The control operator

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	21 years
C	16 years
D	18 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Nets have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	All these choices are correct
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A special hardware modem
B	A vertically polarized antenna
C	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
D	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Distorted speech
C	All these choices are correct
D	Excess intermodulation products

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Susceptance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	200 watts
C	3200 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	6 volts
D	8.5 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	AM
C	All these choices are correct
D	FM

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff frequency
B	Cutoff frequency
C	Notch frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	Vestigial sideband
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The connection is dropped
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The checksum overflows

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	33 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Gain increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Inverted L
C	Inverted V
D	Sloper

Figure G7-1