US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They are not permitted
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	RF clipping level
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the rising sun
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	SSB
C	DSB
D	LSB

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
D	Reduce long delayed echoes

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The E region
D	The D region

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	All these choices are correct
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
D	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	100%
C	50%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Heterodyning
C	Synthesizing
D	Frequency inversion

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
C	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	21 feet
C	11 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1