US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Unground the base of the tower
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The FCC
C	The IEEE
D	The control operator

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	3 kHz to 6 kHz
C	1 kHz to 3 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	14 days

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F2 region
C	The F1 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Reverse-biased diode

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	34 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	24 volts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	70 millihenries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	All these choices are correct
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	Transformers and transducers
D	All these choices are correct

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	An analog mixer
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	Zero
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Odd-order
C	Second harmonics
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Viterbi
C	Binary
D	Varicode

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	5:1
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be fed with open wire line