US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Unground the base of the tower

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	18 years
C	16 years
D	21 years

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	100 watts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To be sure the contact will count for award programs

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
B	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F2 region
C	The E region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	12 dB
C	15 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To reduce radiation resistance
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	All these choices are correct

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	8
D	16

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
C	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
D	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	Vestigial sideband
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	2F1-F2
C	3F1-F2
D	5F1-3F2

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The connection is dropped
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Hemispherical
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom

Figure G7-1