US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	Only the hot wires
C	Only the ground wire
D	All wires

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	17 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the band
B	No part
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	BK
C	KN
D	SK

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communication is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Greater precision
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Clearly audible speech

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Susceptance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	24 watts
C	60 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	4 GHz
B	500 MHz
C	50 MHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Image frequency
C	Local oscillator
D	Beat frequency oscillator

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
B	At the center of the antenna
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground