US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It heats body tissue
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It cools body tissue

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Nets have priority
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	I have received and understood
C	We have worked before
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	All these choices are correct
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the critical frequency
C	Just below the MUF
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
B	All these choices are correct
C	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
D	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	100 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	8
C	16
D	3

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Return loss
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Q

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
C	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
D	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Mixer interference
C	Image response
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Request retransmission of the packet
B	Packet was received without error
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Resonant frequency is lower
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To prevent out-of-band operation