US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When messages are encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	KN
C	BK
D	SK

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
C	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
D	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
B	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
C	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To prevent transient overmodulation

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A wavemeter
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
C	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Siemens
C	Farad
D	Ohm

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	530 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	40 volts
B	120 volts
C	25.5 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	All these choices are correct
C	FM
D	SSB

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Odd-order
C	Intercept point
D	Even-order

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
C	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By deploying a capacitance hat

Figure G7-1