US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	All these choices are correct
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	On any General or Technician class band segment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Only contest stations
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	No US stations should call
C	Operating full break-in
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	LSB
C	DSB
D	SSB

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	No change will be observed
C	A pronounced peak
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Faster response
C	Higher precision
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very low

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	24 watts
C	60 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	1,000 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its conductivity
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Half-wave
C	Full-wave
D	Full-wave bridge

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	16
C	3
D	8

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Zero
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Local oscillator
B	RF input
C	Beat frequency oscillator
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Viterbi

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter radials
B	Lower ground losses
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Lower radiation resistance

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies