US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	All wires
C	Only the hot wires
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	All HF bands
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	1500 watts
C	100 watts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	I am ready to receive
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To be sure the contact will count for award programs

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communication is disturbed
C	HF communication is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Bond equipment enclosures together
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	400 watts
C	3200 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	40 volts
B	25.5 volts
C	120 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	In the tunnel-effect region
C	Reverse biased
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
B	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	902 MHz
B	432 MHz
C	2.4 GHz
D	10.7 GHz

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	24 feet
C	33 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

Figure G7-1