US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	Its duty cycle
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	365 days
D	180 days

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When messages are not encrypted

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	CW
C	DSB
D	USB

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Improve HF long path propagation

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two swept frequency tones
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Ultimate rejection
B	Return loss
C	Insertion loss
D	Q

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	16 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Request retransmission of the packet
B	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Packet was received without error

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Gain increases
C	Resonant frequency is lower
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Very high