US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	250 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Send slower
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
D	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Higher precision
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Faster response

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	3.0 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Control grid
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	50 MHz
C	4 GHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase inversion
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Varicode
C	Binary
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	5:1
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	84 feet
C	42 feet
D	132 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By varying the base loading inductance
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By deploying a capacitance hat