US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The entire band

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Linearity

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transformers and transducers
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	FM
C	All these choices are correct
D	SSB

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
B	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
C	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
D	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Odd-order
C	Intercept point
D	Even-order

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long path propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Backscatter propagation

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower radiation resistance
B	Lower ground losses
C	Shorter radials
D	Lower feed point impedance

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Very high
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Approximately 300 ohms