US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	All these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	60 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The control operator
C	The ITU
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	RF clipping level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Attenuator level

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
C	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
D	Always call on the station’s frequency

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	An ammeter
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	Distorted speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Bypass
C	Shunt
D	Full-wave bridge

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ohm
C	Siemens
D	Ampere

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 9 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	0.07 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	High power handling capability
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency convolution

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	3F1-F2
B	5F1-3F2
C	All these choices are correct
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	Dot and dash
C	On and off
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By varying its body capacitance