US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	20 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	All HF bands
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	16 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	All these choices are correct
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	The position of the Moon in its orbit
C	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
D	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Path distance and location
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F2 region
C	The F1 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	346 volts
C	173 volts
D	245 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	0.07 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Its reactance increases
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	A digital mixer
D	An analog mixer

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Ultimate rejection
B	Insertion loss
C	Return loss
D	Q

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Image frequency
C	Beat frequency oscillator
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
C	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	4:1
C	1:4
D	2:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies