US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 8
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	17 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 4
C	Region 3
D	Region 2

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
B	60 meters and 40 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	All these choices are correct
C	The battery charging system
D	The control computers

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of current to voltage
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The product of current and voltage
D	The ratio of voltage to current

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	300 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	40 GHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An analog mixer
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	A digital mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Upper and lower half-power
B	Image and harmonic
C	Pole and zero
D	Cutoff and rolloff

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	High and low
C	Dot and dash
D	On and off

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Hemispherical
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

Figure G7-1