US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its duty cycle
C	Its frequency
D	Its power density

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	25 amperes
D	20 amperes

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	No part
C	Anywhere in the band
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
C	Say your call sign once
D	Say “Breaker Breaker”

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
D	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A form of Packet Radio
B	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
C	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D	All of the above

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	28 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent key clicks on CW
B	To prevent transient overmodulation
C	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
D	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	Standing wave ratio
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	RF interference

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	The solar panel must have a charge controller
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High discharge current
C	Rapid recharge
D	High voltage

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies