US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	All these choices are correct
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	1500 watts PEP
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	RF clipping level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
B	A form of Packet Radio
C	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
D	All of the above

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent key clicks on CW
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Higher precision
B	Less prone to overload
C	Faster response
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Distorted speech
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Shunt
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Bypass

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	A Pi-network
C	A length of transmission line
D	All these choices are correct

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	346 volts
C	692 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	An analog mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	All these choices are correct
D	It is sideband sensitive

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Directory
C	Preamble
D	Header

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Ohms per 1,000 feet
C	Ohms per 100 feet
D	Decibels per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	33 feet
C	24 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The physical length of the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The number of elements on the boom

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization