US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	17 meters
C	160 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the band
B	No part
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
C	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It improves the resolution of the readings

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Transmitter power output
C	Impedance
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	“Picket fencing”
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Control grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	16
C	6
D	3

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency