US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Parallel to the water supply line
C	Outside the building
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	30 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	180 days

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	10 watts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	All these choices are correct
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A special hardware modem
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Improve ground wave propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Transmitter
C	Antenna and feed line
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
B	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
C	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
D	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	“Picket fencing”
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 9 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	3.0 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	33.3 microfarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	6
C	3
D	8

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
D	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Balanced converter
C	Reactance modulator
D	Mixer

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
B	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground