US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	All these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the hot wires
D	All wires

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The control operator
C	The FCC
D	The ITU

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	10 watts RMS
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
B	A digital protocol used with Winlink
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	Check the A-index
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Linearity

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The battery charging system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Farad
C	Ampere
D	Siemens

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Control grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Screen grid

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Intercept point
D	Even-order

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Hemispherical
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Very low
C	Very high
D	Approximately 300 ohms