US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	All these choices are correct
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	Unground the base of the tower

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
C	Switch to the opposite sideband
D	Decrease power and continue to transmit

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am ready to receive
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	All these choices are correct
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
C	60 meters and 40 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F2 region
C	The E region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic transmit/receive switching
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	60 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Suppressor grid
C	Screen grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
B	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
C	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
D	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	PSK31
C	SSB-SC
D	WSPR

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies

Figure G7-1