US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	All these choices are correct
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They are not permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1500 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Only contest stations
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Follow the voluntary band plan
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio
B	Radio wave propagation
C	RF interference
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	All these choices are correct

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	The solar panel must have a charge controller
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	346 volts
B	173 volts
C	692 volts
D	245 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	0.30 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Catastrophic failure is likely
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Its reactance increases
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	3
C	8
D	16

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Return loss
C	Q
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency convolution

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By using a parity bit with each character

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	1:2
D	2:1

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	21 feet
C	11 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out-of-band operation

Figure G7-1