US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	10 watts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A form of Packet Radio
B	All of the above
C	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A wavemeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A sidetone monitor

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
C	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
D	Place a ferrite choke on the cable

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Transmitter power output
C	Impedance
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Much less leakage than any other type
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type-S to type-M adaptor
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	8
C	3
D	6

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Filtering
C	Modulation
D	Detection

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Image response
C	Intermediate interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
D	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom