US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Outside the building
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	16 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When under automatic control
C	When messages are encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	At any point
D	Only at the minimum point

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Signals have a fluttering sound
B	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
C	Phone signals have high intelligibility
D	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
D	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
C	Bond equipment enclosures together
D	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Series-parallel
C	Shunt
D	Bypass

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Comparatively low cost
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It eliminates ground loop current
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Request retransmission of the packet
C	Packet was received without error
D	Entire file received correctly

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Hemispherical
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low