US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
B	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Only contest stations
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Improve HF long path propagation
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Reduce long delayed echoes

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Phone signals have high intelligibility
B	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
C	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
D	Signals have a fluttering sound

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Higher precision
C	Faster response
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Distorted speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Siemens
C	Ampere
D	Farad

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	400 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.7 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.3 volts

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	4 GHz
B	500 MHz
C	40 GHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Full-wave
C	Half-wave
D	Full-wave bridge

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class AB
C	Class B
D	Class C

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Synthesizing
C	Frequency inversion
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	MFSK32
C	FT8
D	AMTOR

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	1:5
C	5:1
D	2:1

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground