US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	All wires
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	250 feet
C	100 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 4
B	Region 3
C	Region 2
D	Region 1

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	No US stations should call
C	Operating full break-in
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because of temperature inversions
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	Clearly audible speech
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	25.9 percent
B	12.2 percent
C	10.9 percent
D	20.6 percent

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	12 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
B	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
C	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D	At the center of the antenna

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be fed with open wire line