US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	A US operator/primary station license
C	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
D	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	10 watts
C	1500 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The D region
C	The F1 region
D	The E region

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ohmmeter
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	625 watts
C	5000 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	Forward biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Inherently more stable
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Upper and lower half-power
B	Image and harmonic
C	Cutoff and rolloff
D	Pole and zero

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Heterodyning
C	Frequency inversion
D	Phase inversion

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Header
C	Trailer
D	Preamble

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies