US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	All these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	All these choices are correct
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The D region
C	The E region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	Clearly audible speech
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Carrier suppression
C	Received signal strength
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Z
C	Y
D	X

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	5000 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	IF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	Filter

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Mixer
C	Reactance modulator
D	Balanced converter

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Upper case letters are sent with more power
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	1:5
D	5:1

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Sloper
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted V

Figure G7-1