US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It allows “hands free” operation
C	It provides more power output
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	LSB
C	USB
D	DSB

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	Poor propagation at any time of day
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	High levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Short-path
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The RMS value
C	The peak value
D	The peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	500 MHz
C	40 GHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Trailer
C	Preamble
D	Header

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Lazy H
C	Inverted L
D	Inverted V