US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	At the closest power pole ground electrode
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	In series with each ground lead
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
D	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say your call sign once
B	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
C	Say “Breaker Breaker”
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Send a NAK code
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
B	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The F2 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Less prone to overload
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	18 dB
C	15 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	25.9 percent
B	20.6 percent
C	10.9 percent
D	12.2 percent

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	3.0 microfarads
D	300 microfarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Inherently more stable
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	FM
C	All these choices are correct
D	AM

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	Its encoding provides error correction
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Trailer
C	Preamble
D	Directory

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The physical length of the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The number of elements on the boom

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth