US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It heats body tissue
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	Only the ground wire
C	All wires
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C	All these choices are correct
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	All these choices are correct
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Only contest stations
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	3 kHz to 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	A special hardware modem
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
B	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 2 times

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	100 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Inherently more stable
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Notch depth
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase transformation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation
B	Heterodyning
C	Rolloff
D	Detection

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	The checksum overflows
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground