US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When messages are encrypted

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	Zero beat my signal
C	I am troubled by static
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
C	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
D	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	40 volts
B	25.5 volts
C	120 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	All these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Inherently more stable
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	5F1-3F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	3F1-F2
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	5:1
C	1:5
D	1:2

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo