US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It cools body tissue
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It heats body tissue

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Outside the building
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The IEEE
C	The FCC
D	The ITU

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	Follow the voluntary band plan
D	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I have received and understood
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	Send slower
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
B	To prevent transient overmodulation
C	To prevent key clicks on CW
D	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Distorted speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 henries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Catastrophic failure is likely
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Its reactance increases

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	100%

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	Zero
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	10.7 GHz
B	2.4 GHz
C	432 MHz
D	902 MHz

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

Figure G7-1