US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	25 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	All HF bands

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	All these choices are correct
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	10 watts RMS
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Nets have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	I am troubled by static
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Send more slowly

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are attenuated before reaching the destination

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The D region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	173 volts
B	245 volts
C	692 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	360 volts
C	120 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Tight tolerance
C	Much less leakage than any other type
D	High capacitance for a given volume

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	500 MHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Trailer
D	Directory

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Hemispherical
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out-of-band operation

Figure G7-1