US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
B	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
C	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To prevent key clicks on CW
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Higher precision
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Less prone to overload

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Clearly audible speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	346 volts
B	173 volts
C	245 volts
D	692 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.3 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class A
C	Class B
D	Class C

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Multiplier
C	Balanced converter
D	Mixer

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	11 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Very high
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Very low