US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The portion above 29.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
B	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	100 watts
C	1500 watts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	AR
C	KN
D	SK

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is improved
B	HF communication is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
B	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Distorted speech
C	All these choices are correct
D	Excess intermodulation products

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	100 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	67 ohms
B	150 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	4 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase inversion
C	Phase convolution
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Local oscillator
D	RF input

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Volumetric
C	Viterbi
D	Varicode

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	They are all the same length
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Polarization diversity
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Harmonic suppression

Figure G7-1