US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	20 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	All these choices are correct
C	Follow the voluntary band plan
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am ready to receive
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Less prone to overload
C	Higher precision
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	All these choices are correct
C	Distorted speech
D	Excessive background noise

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	“Picket fencing”
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Notch depth
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Rolloff

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	Vestigial sideband
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Even-order
C	Intercept point
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
C	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

Figure G7-1