US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Outside the building
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
B	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	A US operator/primary station license

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am ready to receive

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Toward the rising sun

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	A special hardware modem

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	1 to 2 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Siemens
C	Farad
D	Ohm

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 9 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	144 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	12 to 1

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	Less than 50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Modulation
C	Detection
D	Filtering

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Intercept point
C	Odd-order
D	Even-order

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Varicode

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	1:5

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the loop
B	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Broadside and in the plane of the loop