US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	All wires

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Nets have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	I have received and understood
C	Send slower
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just above the LUF
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
C	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
D	Place a ferrite choke on the cable

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases average power
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Shunt
D	Bypass

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	339.4 volts
C	240.0 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	Rapid recharge
C	High voltage
D	High discharge current

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Full-wave
C	Half-wave
D	Full-wave bridge

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	Zero
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	3 kHz

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
D	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation