US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
B	All these choices are correct
C	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	30 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	No part
C	Anywhere in the band
D	Channels 1 through 4

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To follow standard radiogram structure
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
B	A form of Packet Radio
C	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
D	All of the above

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Susceptance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Screen grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An analog mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	RF amplifier
C	Filter
D	Carrier oscillator

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using the Varicode character set
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies