US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	All these choices are correct
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	15 amperes

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	LSB
C	CW
D	DSB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the MUF
B	Just above the critical frequency
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the critical frequency

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A pronounced dip
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Bond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The peak value
D	The reciprocal of the RMS value

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	67 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Rapid recharge
C	Long life
D	High discharge current

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Upper and lower half-power
B	Cutoff and rolloff
C	Image and harmonic
D	Pole and zero

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Intercept point
C	Second harmonics
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Long path propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Broadside to the plane of the halo
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point