US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The control operator
C	The IEEE
D	The FCC

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	30 days
C	365 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	All these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	SK
C	KN
D	BK

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are attenuated before reaching the destination

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
D	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The battery charging system
C	The fuel delivery system
D	The control computers

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	6 volts
D	8.5 volts

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	3
C	6
D	8

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
D	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1