US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	All wires
C	Only the neutral wire
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	AR
C	KN
D	SK

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	All these choices are correct
C	Receiver
D	Antenna and feed line

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Ohm
C	Ampere
D	Farad

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	1.414
C	1.00
D	0.707

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	0.17 ohms
C	80 ohms
D	17 ohms

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	1.0 volts
C	0.3 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class C
C	Class A
D	Class B

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Modulation
C	All these choices are correct
D	Filtering

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	3F1-F2
D	5F1-3F2

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	Dot and dash
C	On and off
D	High and low

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	5:1
C	1:2
D	1:5

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower ground losses

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By deploying a capacitance hat
D	By varying the base loading inductance