US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 16

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	200 feet
C	250 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Closing station now
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	Poor propagation at any time of day
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	High levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Excessive background noise
C	Distorted speech
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Shunt
D	Bypass

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	60 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	3,583 picofarads
C	1,733 picofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Long life
C	High discharge current
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	PL-259
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	Amplitude compressed AM
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	FT8
C	MFSK32
D	AMTOR

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency

Figure G7-1