US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	50 feet
C	250 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When messages are encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	Attenuator level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Nets have priority
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	14 days
C	15 hours to several days
D	28 days

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F2 region
C	The E region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
C	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A wavemeter
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Clearly audible speech
C	Distorted speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High stability
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency conversion

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Local oscillator
C	Beat frequency oscillator
D	RF input

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth