US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	RF clipping level
D	Attenuator level

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
B	A digital protocol used with Winlink
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	All these choices are correct
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Impedance
C	Received signal strength
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	3200 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	67 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	150 ohms

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	High power handling capability
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Notch depth
C	Insertion loss
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	3 kHz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Viterbi

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	21 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground