US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion above 29.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
B	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Under no circumstances except for emergencies

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Nets have priority
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Improve HF long path propagation
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Reduce long delayed echoes

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
C	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
D	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	120 volts
B	40 volts
C	360 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	A digital mixer
D	An analog mixer

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Neper frequency
C	Cutoff frequency
D	Rolloff frequency

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
B	The opposite of fade margin
C	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
D	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Local oscillator
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	RF input
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Hemispherical
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1