US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Unground the base of the tower
B	All these choices are correct
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	200 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Only those of the remote station’s country
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	No part
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only digital contacts

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
B	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Reduce long delayed echoes
C	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
D	Improve HF long path propagation

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
B	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
C	Poor propagation at any time of day
D	World-wide propagation during daylight hours

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
C	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
D	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A wavemeter
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The battery charging system
B	The control computers
C	The fuel delivery system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual capacitance
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Displacement current coupling
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.3 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Reverse biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	Only one diode is required
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Directory
C	Trailer
D	Preamble

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point