US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	10 watts RMS
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
C	The third party is not a US citizen
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
B	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Always call on the station’s frequency

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the highest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Series-parallel
C	Bypass
D	Shunt

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	5000 watts
D	625 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	4 GHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	3
C	6
D	16

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Image response

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	They are all the same length
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies