US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 20
D	AWG number 16

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	60 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	All these choices are correct
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
D	A US operator/primary station license

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	100 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	All these choices are correct
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Reverse-biased diode

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
C	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	100 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	67 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	150 ohms

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	12 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	Filter
C	Carrier oscillator
D	IF amplifier

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The average
C	The sum and difference
D	The ratio

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	42 feet
C	263 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground