US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	All these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	All these choices are correct
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 4
C	Region 1
D	Region 3

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Nets have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	SSB
D	USB

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Short-path
C	Scatter
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	Radio wave propagation
C	Standing wave ratio
D	RF interference

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	12 dB
C	18 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Shunt
C	Series-parallel
D	Bypass

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Displacement current coupling
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	Its conductivity
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	SSB
C	All these choices are correct
D	AM

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Cutoff and rolloff
B	Image and harmonic
C	Pole and zero
D	Upper and lower half-power

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Binary
C	Viterbi
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	1:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	They are all the same length
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization