US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	When under automatic control
C	Under no circumstances
D	When messages are not encrypted

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
B	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C	Decrease power and continue to transmit
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Sending without error
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
C	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Scatter
C	Chordal hop
D	Short-path

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	Much less leakage than any other type
D	High capacitance for a given volume

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	All these choices are correct
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
B	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
D	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	1:5

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth