US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	12 meters
C	160 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Operating full break-in
C	Closing station now
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	A vertically polarized antenna
C	A special hardware modem
D	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Poor propagation at any time of day
B	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	World-wide propagation during daylight hours

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The D region
C	The E region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
D	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	All these choices are correct
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	All these choices are correct

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	24 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Fewer digital components are required

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Local oscillator
D	RF input

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and dash
B	On and off
C	High and low
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	1:4
D	4:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	24 feet
C	33 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1