US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	All these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Universal Licensing System
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	All these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Closing station now
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communication is improved
C	HF communication is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	A wavemeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
B	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
C	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
D	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Carrier suppression
C	Impedance
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Ohm
D	Siemens

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	3200 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	70 millihenries

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.3 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	Forward biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Modulation
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	It is sideband sensitive

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Odd-order
C	Intercept point
D	Even-order

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The physical length of the boom
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point

Figure G7-1