US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Unground the base of the tower
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	All these choices are correct
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
B	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
C	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point
B	Only at the maximum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	Only at the minimum point

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the LUF
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The fuel delivery system
C	All these choices are correct
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	530 watts
C	1500 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	High power handling capability
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	All these choices are correct
C	Diodes
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	3
C	8
D	16

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	All these choices are correct
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
B	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	4:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	24 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground