US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	All these choices are correct
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	18 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
B	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	All these choices are correct
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
C	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
B	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Y
C	X
D	Z

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The RMS value
C	The peak value
D	The peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Suppressor grid
C	Screen grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	50%

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	Zero
C	45 degrees
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Backscatter propagation

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They have poor harmonic rejection

Figure G7-1