US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	AR
C	KN
D	BK

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The F2 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce harmonic radiation
B	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To prevent excessive drive

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	Radio wave propagation
C	RF interference
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	530 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	7 millihenries

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.7 volts
C	0.3 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	On and off
C	Dot and dash
D	High and low

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	263 feet
C	132 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground