US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 4
B	Region 1
C	Region 3
D	Region 2

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say your call sign once
B	Say “Breaker Breaker”
C	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
C	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
C	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
D	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	All these choices are correct
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Shunt
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Bypass
D	Series-parallel

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	50 MHz
C	4 GHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An analog mixer
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency transformation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They have poor harmonic rejection