US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
B	All these choices are correct
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
B	Toward the rising sun
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	Y
C	B
D	Z

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.414
C	2.00
D	1.00

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	An inductor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	8
D	16

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Filtering
C	Modulation
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	5F1-3F2
B	3F1-F2
C	All these choices are correct
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
B	On the same side as the feed point
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	Opposite the feed point

Figure G7-1