US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	30 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	I am troubled by static

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the north
C	Toward the rising sun
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	At any point

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Higher precision
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Less prone to overload
D	Faster response

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Bypass inductor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Excessive background noise
C	All these choices are correct
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.3 volts

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	Only one diode is required
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	Zero
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	1:5

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation