US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	160 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	All these choices are correct
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	21 years
C	There is no age limit
D	16 years

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	All these choices are correct
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Attenuator level

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	HF communication is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	The ALC action distorts the signal
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases average power
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	“Picket fencing”
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The RMS value
C	The peak value
D	The peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	40 volts
C	120 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Forward biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An analog mixer
C	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
D	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	FT8, FT4, and FST4

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	11 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance