US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	12 meters
C	160 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	365 days
C	30 days
D	180 days

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When messages are encrypted

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	1 kHz to 3 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A vertically polarized antenna
D	A special hardware modem

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Higher precision
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Less prone to overload

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To increase the “Q” of the antenna

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	530 watts
C	1060 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	144 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Long life
C	High discharge current
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Digital
C	Programmable Logic
D	Analog

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Odd-order
C	Intercept point
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	132 feet
C	84 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

Figure G7-1