US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	20 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
B	A digital protocol used with Winlink
C	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
D	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	All these choices are correct
C	Path distance and location
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
B	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
C	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	B
C	Y
D	Z

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	240.0 volts
B	339.4 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	169.7 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	12 to 1

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	100%
D	50%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
B	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
C	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	3F1-F2
B	2F1-F2
C	5F1-3F2
D	All these choices are correct

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Hemispherical
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground