US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its power density
C	Its frequency
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	Acceptable modulation limits
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	All these choices are correct
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	PEP input to the antenna
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Universal Licensing System
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	“Picket fencing”
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The product of current and voltage

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Its reactance increases
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	PL-259
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	Less than 50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Mixer interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Image response

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	FT8
C	MSK144
D	MFSK32

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Hemispherical
C	Isotropic
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Front-to-back ratio decreases
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground