US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	All these choices are correct
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
B	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Increase your power
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
D	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	All these choices are correct
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Impedance
C	Carrier suppression
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The battery charging system
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The control computers
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
C	Current and voltage are equal
D	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	240.0 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Screen grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class C
C	Class A
D	Class B

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Modulation
C	Filtering
D	Detection

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The average
B	The sum and difference
C	The arithmetic product
D	The ratio

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Long path propagation
D	Overmodulation

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They have poor harmonic rejection

Figure G7-1