US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	RMS input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	PEP output from the transmitter

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Only contest stations
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets have priority
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Printer/Server
B	RJ-45
C	Terminal Node Controller
D	Gateway

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic transmit/receive switching
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
D	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two swept frequency tones
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	4 GHz
C	500 MHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
C	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	3F1-F2
C	2F1-F2
D	5F1-3F2

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	FT8
C	MFSK32
D	MSK144

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Very low