US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It cools body tissue
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	1 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Send slower
D	Repeat everything twice

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	All these choices are correct
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Transmitter power output
C	Impedance
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	All these choices are correct
C	A length of transmission line
D	A Pi-network

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	1.414
C	0.707
D	1.00

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	High stability

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	Forward biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	All these choices are correct
C	Detection
D	Filtering

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature response
B	Mixer interference
C	Image response
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 dB over S9
B	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is S3 (weak signals)

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	1:1

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger-diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1