US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	In series with each ground lead
C	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
D	At the closest power pole ground electrode

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Universal Licensing System
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 4
B	Region 1
C	Region 3
D	Region 2

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 2 hours per month
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communication is improved

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An ohmmeter

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	A length of transmission line

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	530 watts
C	1500 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	Digital

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	A digital mixer
D	An analog mixer

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	Zero
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Overmodulation

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Ohms per 1,000 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily increases
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Sloper
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted L