US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the hot wires
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They are not permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
C	Follow the voluntary band plan
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Toward the rising sun
C	Along the gray line
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improve ground wave propagation
D	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	The ALC action distorts the signal
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Siemens
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 61 milliwatts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	16
C	6
D	8

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Notch depth
B	Insertion loss
C	Rolloff
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Packet was received without error
B	Request retransmission of the packet
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Resonant frequency is lower
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very high
D	Approximately 300 ohms