US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It cools body tissue
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It heats body tissue

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion above 29.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	PEP input to the antenna
D	RMS output from the transmitter

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	There is no age limit
C	21 years
D	16 years

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	No part
B	Channels 1 through 4
C	Channels 42 through 45
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
B	A digital protocol used with Winlink
C	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
D	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A pronounced dip
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	All these choices are correct
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Using surge suppressor power outlets
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	All these choices are correct
C	The fuel delivery system
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	X
C	Y
D	B

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	200 watts
C	400 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual capacitance
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Mutual inductance
D	Displacement current coupling

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Catastrophic failure is likely
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Its reactance increases

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	40 GHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	FM
C	SSB
D	AM

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier noise figure
B	Input amplifier gain
C	All these choices are correct
D	Demodulator stage bandwidth

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	Amplitude compressed AM

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Image frequency
C	Local oscillator
D	Beat frequency oscillator

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	On and off
C	Mark and space
D	Dot and dash

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground losses
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Harmonic suppression