US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	All these choices are correct
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	All HF bands
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
B	All these choices are correct
C	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have worked before
C	I have received and understood
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	DSB
C	LSB
D	USB

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	At any point
C	Only at the minimum point
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Signals have a fluttering sound
B	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
C	Phone signals have high intelligibility
D	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff frequency
B	Notch frequency
C	Cutoff frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	3 kHz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Varicode
C	Viterbi
D	Binary

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	5:1

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground