US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	All these choices are correct
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
C	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
D	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	On any General or Technician class band segment
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 1
C	Region 4
D	Region 3

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	100 percent copy
C	Key clicks
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
B	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
C	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
D	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Reduce long delayed echoes
C	Improve HF long path propagation
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
B	All these choices are correct
C	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
D	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmitter
D	Receiver

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
D	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	84.8 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	40 volts
C	120 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	416.7 Hz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	16 feet
C	33 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	They are all the same length
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very high