US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Electrical safety of the station
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
C	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
D	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Bypass
D	Shunt

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Susceptance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	34 volts
C	24 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	360 volts
C	40 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Control grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	Only one diode is required
D	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Directory
C	Preamble
D	Header

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:5
C	5:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Isotropic
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground