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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
AAll stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
BAll commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
COnly stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
DOnly stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

SelectAnswer
AOvervoltage on the hot wires
BCurrent flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
CCurrent flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
DAll these choices are correct

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

SelectAnswer
AThe lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
BThe lower frequency portion
CThe upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
DThe upper frequency portion

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

SelectAnswer
AOnly when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
BUnder no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
CAt any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
DAmateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AAn effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B200 watts PEP output
C50 watts PEP output
D1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

SelectAnswer
AGeneral and Technician
BNone, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
CTechnician only
DAmateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

SelectAnswer
AWhen using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
BAll these choices are correct
CWhen a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
DWhen operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
ALower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
BBecause it is fully compatible with an AM detector
CLower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
DIt is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
BOnly SSTV contacts
COnly digital contacts
DOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

SelectAnswer
AKey clicks
BChirpy or unstable signal
C100 percent copy
DReport was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

SelectAnswer
AAlong the gray line
BToward the north
CToward the rising sun
D180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

SelectAnswer
ASend a NAK code
BJoining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
CTransmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
DSend broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

SelectAnswer
AHigher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
BA zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
CA zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
DLower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

SelectAnswer
ATime of day and season
BPath distance and location
CSolar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
DAll these choices are correct

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

SelectAnswer
AThe F2 region
BThe F1 region
CThe D region
DThe E region

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BReduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
CIncrease power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
DReduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AGain of a directional antenna
BPower output from a transmitter
CFront-to-back ratio of an antenna
DImpedance of coaxial cable

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AUsing a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
BLack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
CNot using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
DArcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 2 times
BApproximately 8 times
CApproximately 1.5 times
DApproximately 4 times

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

SelectAnswer
AThe DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
BThe socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
CDrawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
DThe socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

SelectAnswer
A173 volts
B245 volts
C692 volts
D346 volts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A5.9 ohms
B0.17 ohms
C17 ohms
D80 ohms

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
BThe resistor could overheat
CThe resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
DThe resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

SelectAnswer
A500 MHz
B4 GHz
C40 GHz
D50 MHz

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 2
BSymbol 4
CSymbol 1
DSymbol 5

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

SelectAnswer
AOutput is low only when both inputs are high
BOutput is high only when both inputs are high
COutput is high when either or both inputs are low
DOutput is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

SelectAnswer
AUsed in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
BUsed in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
CUsed in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
DUsed in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

SelectAnswer
AInsufficient audio
BInsufficient bandwidth
CExcessive bandwidth
DFrequency drift

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

SelectAnswer
AImage frequency
BRF input
CBeat frequency oscillator
DLocal oscillator

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

SelectAnswer
AA 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
BA code using error detection and correction
CA code using SELCAL and LISTEN
DA 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
BThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
CThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
DThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AIt is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
BIt must be longer than 1 wavelength
CIt produces only vertically polarized radiation
DStation equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AResonant frequency is lower
BBeamwidth increases
CGain increases
DFront-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

SelectAnswer
AOmnidirectional in the plane of the halo
BOpposite the feed point
COn the same side as the feed point
DBroadside to the plane of the halo

Figure G7-1