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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

SelectAnswer
AContact the FCC for permission to transmit
BUse an FCC-approved band-pass filter
CPerform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
DPerform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

SelectAnswer
ALightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
BThey must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
CThey must be bonded together with all other grounds
DBends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
B21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

SelectAnswer
A20 watts PEP output
B100 watts PEP output
C200 watts PEP output
D10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

SelectAnswer
ASubmit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
BPublicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
CObtain an experimental license from the FCC
DType-certify equipment to FCC standards

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

SelectAnswer
AGeneral and Technician
BTechnician only
CNone, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
DAmateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

SelectAnswer
AOnly when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
BUnder any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
CUnder no circumstances except for emergencies
DOnly when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
AVery high-fidelity voice modulation
BLess subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
CLess bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
DEase of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

SelectAnswer
ASend “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
BSend the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
CListen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
DSend “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

SelectAnswer
ABreaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
BAutomatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
CTransmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
DAn operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

SelectAnswer
AA map that shows accurate land masses
BA map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
CA map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
DA map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

SelectAnswer
AUSB
BSSB
CLSB
DDSB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

SelectAnswer
A20 to 40 hours
B28 days
C8 minutes
D1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BTime of day and season
CPath distance and location
DSolar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AThe F1 region
BThe E region
CThe D region
DThe F2 region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ATo improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
BTo allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
CTo permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
DTo transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe attenuated RF output of the transmitter
BAn external RF oscillator
CThe local oscillator of the transmitter
DThe transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

SelectAnswer
AIt prevents signal overload
BIt ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
CIt ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
DIt prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases peak power
BIt increases average power
CIt reduces harmonic distortion
DIt reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
BTo limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
CTo prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
DTo prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
BAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

SelectAnswer
A84.8 volts
B240.0 volts
C169.7 volts
D339.4 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AAdditional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
BThe input voltage is divided by 4
CThe input voltage is multiplied by 4
DAdditional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AInexpensive RF capacitor
BMuch less leakage than any other type
CHigh capacitance for a given volume
DTight tolerance

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

SelectAnswer
AMost of the magnetic field is contained in the core
BLarge values of inductance may be obtained
CAll these choices are correct
DThe magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 11
BSymbol 1
CSymbol 7
DSymbol 6

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

SelectAnswer
AMore than 50% but less than 100%
BLess than 50%
C100%
D50%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

SelectAnswer
ATo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
BTo minimize radiation resistance
CTo reduce power supply ripple
DTo minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

SelectAnswer
AMultiplex modulation
BAmplitude modulation
CPulse modulation
DPhase modulation

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

SelectAnswer
AThe arithmetic product
BThe sum and difference
CThe average
DThe ratio

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

SelectAnswer
ABinary
BVolumetric
CViterbi
DVaricode

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

SelectAnswer
AThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
BThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
CThe radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
DThe frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
ALengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
BSlope the radials downward
CSlope the radials upward
DCoil the radials

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 1.5 dB higher
BApproximately 3 dB higher
CApproximately 9 dB higher
DApproximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AGain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
BElement length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
CSWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
DImpedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

Figure G7-1