US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Outside the building
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	1500 watts PEP
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	AR
C	BK
D	KN

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the rising sun
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	All these choices are correct
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At any point
D	At the summer solstice

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Chordal hop
C	Scatter
D	Short-path

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is divided by 4
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	Only one diode is required
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	Zero
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
B	8-tone frequency shift keying
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Amplitude compressed AM

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Header
C	Trailer
D	Preamble

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of elements on the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency