US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	Only the ground wire
C	Only the neutral wire
D	All wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
B	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Any caller is welcome to respond
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	3 kHz to 6 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
C	80 meters and 160 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Check the A-index
B	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced dip
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A signal generator
D	An ohmmeter

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	15 dB
C	18 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The peak value

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	3,583 picofarads
C	1,733 picofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	MMIC

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	All these choices are correct

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase transformation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Backscatter propagation

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	5:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	They are all the same length
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization