US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	All these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	All these choices are correct
D	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
C	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	10 watts RMS
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	All these choices are correct
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Any caller is welcome to respond
C	Only contest stations
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only digital contacts

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
C	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
C	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To increase overall efficiency
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To prevent excessive drive

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	An oscilloscope
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	All these choices are correct
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	300 microfarads
B	33.3 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	PL-259
C	Type N
D	RCA Phono

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Audio with equalized frequency response
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Beat frequency oscillator
B	Local oscillator
C	RF input
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
B	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground