US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	Outside the building
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The FCC
C	The control operator
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	Channels 42 through 45
C	No part
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	RF clipping level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only digital contacts
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	I am troubled by static
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade ground wave propagation
D	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just above the LUF
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
C	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
D	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The battery charging system
C	The fuel delivery system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	34 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	24 volts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	80 ohms

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	MMIC
D	Analog

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class AB
C	Class C
D	Class A

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	All these choices are correct
C	Detection
D	Filtering

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Mixer
C	Balanced converter
D	Multiplier

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters are sent with more power
C	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation decreases

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
B	On the same side as the feed point
C	Opposite the feed point
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo