US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Stop sending
D	I am troubled by static

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	Only at the maximum point
D	At the summer solstice

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
C	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce harmonic radiation
B	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To prevent excessive drive

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Gain of a directional antenna
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	1.414
C	0.707
D	2.00

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	0.30 henries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its reactance increases
B	Catastrophic failure is likely
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	50 MHz
C	500 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Transformers and transducers
C	All these choices are correct
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	Amplitude compressed AM
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Long path propagation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Overmodulation

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	As high as possible above the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D	At the center of the antenna

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Inverted L
C	Inverted V
D	Sloper