US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 8
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 12

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	60 meters
C	11 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	200 feet
C	50 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
B	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	21 years
C	16 years
D	18 years

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1500 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	Send slower
C	I have received and understood
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	USB
C	LSB
D	DSB

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Poor propagation at any time of day
B	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	High levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A wavemeter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	12 dB
B	6 dB
C	18 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	“Picket fencing”
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
B	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
D	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	6 watts
D	2.4 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Capacitive coupling

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Control grid
C	Screen grid
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A nickel plated version of the PL-259

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	Less than 50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	432 MHz
B	2.4 GHz
C	902 MHz
D	10.7 GHz

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Decibels per 100 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C	Polarization diversity
D	Harmonic suppression