US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	At the closest power pole ground electrode
C	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	All HF bands

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
C	Say “Breaker Breaker”
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Closing station now
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	A special hardware modem
D	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	20 to 40 hours
C	1 to 2 hours
D	28 days

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
B	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
C	All these choices are correct
D	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When high precision is desired
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Distorted speech
C	Excessive background noise
D	Excess intermodulation products

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
D	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	20.6 percent

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	3,583 picofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	1,733 picofarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Reverse biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using the Varicode character set
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using a parity bit with each character

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	33 feet
C	8 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Inverted L
C	Lazy H
D	Sloper

Figure G7-1