US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	All HF bands
D	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	50 feet
C	200 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	PEP input to the antenna
D	PEP output from the transmitter

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	RF clipping level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Attenuator level

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
C	All these choices are correct
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	Only at the minimum point
C	Only at the maximum point
D	At any point

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
B	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
C	Poor propagation at any time of day
D	World-wide propagation during daylight hours

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Scatter
C	Chordal hop
D	Short-path

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent key clicks on CW
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	RF interference
D	Radio wave propagation

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Bypass
C	Series-parallel
D	Shunt

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1060 watts
D	530 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	3.0 microfarads
B	33.3 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	12 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	All these choices are correct
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Image response

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Inverted L
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted V