US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	All these choices are correct
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Outside the building
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	All these choices are correct
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
B	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Time of day and season
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Received signal strength
C	Carrier suppression
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Susceptance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	200 watts
C	400 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High discharge current
C	High voltage
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Synchronous
D	Full-wave

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency transformation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Odd-order
C	Even-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Header
C	Preamble
D	Directory

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	33 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Loading coils in series with the element

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies