US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It cools body tissue
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 12

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	250 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 4
C	Region 3
D	Region 1

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Change frequency
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
B	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
C	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Gateway
B	Printer/Server
C	Terminal Node Controller
D	RJ-45

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the critical frequency

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Bypass
C	Shunt
D	Full-wave bridge

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and voltage
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The ratio of voltage to current

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1060 watts
C	1500 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its reactance increases
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	A digital mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Insufficient bandwidth

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	MFSK32
C	AMTOR
D	FT8

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground losses
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Lower radiation resistance

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger-diameter elements
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Loading coils in series with the element

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They must be fed with open wire line