US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	Its duty cycle
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	Outside the building
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The control operator
D	The FCC

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	All these choices are correct
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	1 to 2 hours
C	8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Check the A-index
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	The ALC action distorts the signal
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	All these choices are correct
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Bypass
C	Shunt
D	Series-parallel

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A Pi-network
C	A length of transmission line
D	A transformer

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1060 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High discharge current
C	High voltage
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class B
C	Class C
D	Class A

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Power modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long path propagation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Overmodulation

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By deploying a capacitance hat

Figure G7-1