US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	All these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	All these choices are correct
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	All these choices are correct
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Stop sending
D	Send more slowly

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Scatter
C	Faraday rotation
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Screen grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	40 GHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class C
C	Class A
D	Class B

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
B	Its encoding provides error correction
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Polarization diversity
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna