US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	All wires
C	Only the hot wires
D	Only the neutral wire

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	50 feet
C	100 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 4
C	Region 2
D	Region 1

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
C	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improve ground wave propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	100 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	360 volts
C	40 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Much less leakage than any other type
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	Its conductivity
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It eliminates ground loop current
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase transformation
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase inversion

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters are sent with more power
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	1:4
D	4:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	24 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	They are all the same length
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Very high
C	Very low
D	Approximately 50 ohms