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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

SelectAnswer
AIt causes radiation poisoning
BIt cools body tissue
CIt heats body tissue
DIt causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

SelectAnswer
AOnly the hot wires
BAll wires
COnly the neutral wire
DOnly the ground wire

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

SelectAnswer
AAmateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
BAmateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
CAmateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
DAmateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

SelectAnswer
A50 feet
B200 feet
C250 feet
D100 feet

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

SelectAnswer
ARMS output from the transmitter
BPEP input to the antenna
CPEP output from the transmitter
DRMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

SelectAnswer
AContact the FCC to have the license reinstated
BThe applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
CThey must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
DThere are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

SelectAnswer
ARegion 2
BRegion 4
CRegion 3
DRegion 1

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

SelectAnswer
ASSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
BSSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
COnly one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
DOnly one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BFollow the voluntary band plan
CListen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
DIdentify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

SelectAnswer
AReport was read from an S meter rather than estimated
BKey clicks
CChirpy or unstable signal
D100 percent copy

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

SelectAnswer
ASign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
BTransmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
CRepeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
DSay “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
BTo provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
CTo provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
DTo provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
BThe short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
CThe relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
DThe solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

SelectAnswer
AThey are refracted back to Earth
BThey are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
CThey are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
DThey pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

SelectAnswer
AChordal hop
BShort-path
CFaraday rotation
DScatter

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
BTo transmit on one frequency and listen on another
CTo improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
DTo permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

SelectAnswer
ARadio wave propagation
BStanding wave ratio
CAntenna front-to-back ratio
DRF interference

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

SelectAnswer
AA ground loop
BHigh RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
COverheating of ground straps
DCorrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

SelectAnswer
AExcess intermodulation products
BAll these choices are correct
CDistorted speech
DExcessive background noise

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce radiation resistance
BTo lower the radiation angle
CTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
DTo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

SelectAnswer
AThe product of current and reactance
BThe product of current and voltage
CThe ratio of voltage to current
DThe ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

SelectAnswer
A8.5 volts
B24 volts
C34 volts
D12 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AAdditional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
BThe input voltage is divided by 4
CThe input voltage is multiplied by 4
DAdditional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
BThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
CThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction
DThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

SelectAnswer
AA connector designed for serial multiple access signals
BA type-S to type-M adaptor
CA type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
DA small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

SelectAnswer
A90 degrees
B180 degrees
C270 degrees
D360 degrees

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThe number of stages in the counter
BThe number of stages in the divider
CThe time delay of the lag circuit
DThe inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

SelectAnswer
AAll types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
BAutomatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
CMinimum detectible signal level is reduced
DThe need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency modulation
BPhase modulation
CAmplitude modulation
DPower modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

SelectAnswer
ARolloff
BDetection
CIntermodulation
DHeterodyning

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

SelectAnswer
ADirectory
BHeader
CTrailer
DPreamble

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

SelectAnswer
A5:1
BBetween 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
CBetween 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D1:1

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

SelectAnswer
AIt steadily increases
BIt steadily decreases
CIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
DIt is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe number of directors versus the number of reflectors
BThe power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
CThe ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
DThe relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
DA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground