US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
B	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must be for other licensed amateurs

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A form of Packet Radio
B	All of the above
C	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F2 region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A wavemeter
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	All these choices are correct

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A Pi-network
C	All these choices are correct
D	A transformer

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Capacitive coupling
D	Mutual capacitance

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	In the tunnel-effect region
C	Reverse biased
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
B	Only one diode is required
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	Zero
C	45 degrees
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Phase inversion
C	Frequency inversion
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
B	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
C	The signal is 3 dB over S9
D	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	450 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	50 ohms

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Hemispherical
C	Isotropic
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The spacing of each element along the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	The number of elements on the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo