US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	Outside the building
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They are not permitted
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	SK
C	AR
D	KN

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Terminal Node Controller
B	Printer/Server
C	RJ-45
D	Gateway

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	Poor propagation at any time of day
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	High levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The control computers
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Ampere
C	Farad
D	Ohm

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	1,733 picofarads
C	10.750 nanofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Much less leakage than any other type
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Neper frequency
B	Notch frequency
C	Rolloff frequency
D	Cutoff frequency

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	42 feet
C	132 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies