US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	All these choices are correct
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	100 watts
C	10 watts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Transmitter
C	Antenna and feed line
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Excess intermodulation products
C	Distorted speech
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass
B	Shunt
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Series-parallel

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	60 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Balanced converter
C	Multiplier
D	Mixer

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long path propagation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
C	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

Figure G7-1