US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 12
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	11 meters
C	30 meters
D	60 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	50 feet
C	200 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	18 years
C	21 years
D	There is no age limit

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
B	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
C	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	CW
D	USB

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Short-path
C	Chordal hop
D	Scatter

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A wavemeter
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	All these choices are correct
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	6 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	0.07 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.3 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	Less than 50%
D	50%

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	Zero

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Even-order
C	Odd-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Trailer

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very high
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1