US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	12 meters
C	60 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	365 days
D	30 days

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	10 watts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single phase modulation
D	Single sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	Stop sending
C	I am troubled by static
D	Zero beat my signal

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
B	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
C	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communication is improved

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Farad

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A type-S to type-M adaptor
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class C
C	Class A
D	Class AB

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier gain
B	Demodulator stage bandwidth
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Intercept point
C	Even-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Overmodulation

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They have poor harmonic rejection

Figure G7-1