US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the neutral wire
C	All wires
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The IEEE
C	The ITU
D	The FCC

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	1500 watts PEP
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	Anywhere in the band
C	Channels 42 through 45
D	No part

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say your call sign once
B	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
C	Say “Breaker Breaker”
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	All these choices are correct
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	I am troubled by static
C	Stop sending
D	Zero beat my signal

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
B	A form of Packet Radio
C	All of the above
D	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	14 days

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Time of day and season
C	All these choices are correct
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	12 dB
B	18 dB
C	6 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Z
C	Y
D	X

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.6 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	25.9 percent

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	An analog mixer
C	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	Amplitude compressed AM
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Broadside to the plane of the halo
C	On the same side as the feed point
D	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo