US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	20 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	All HF bands
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Only those of the remote station’s country
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 1
C	Region 3
D	Region 4

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Nets have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
D	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When high precision is desired
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	173 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	40 volts
B	360 volts
C	120 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Forward biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	Only one diode is required
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	8 kHz

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	21 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner