US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It cools body tissue
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	25 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	20 amperes

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	250 feet
C	100 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Always call on the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	14 days
C	15 hours to several days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	“Picket fencing”
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	84.8 volts
B	339.4 volts
C	240.0 volts
D	169.7 volts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	14.3 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	7 millihenries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	6 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	Only one diode is required
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Fewer digital components are required

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	16 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	3 kHz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Trailer

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:5
C	1:2
D	2:1

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be fed with open wire line