US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its power density
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	25 amperes
B	30 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	15 amperes

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The IEEE
C	The FCC
D	The control operator

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Nets have priority
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	USB
D	CW

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	At any point
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	Greater precision

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
B	Resistance is cancelled
C	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	0.17 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	80 ohms

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Only one diode is required
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
D	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The ratio
C	The sum and difference
D	The average

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Packet was received without error
B	Request retransmission of the packet
C	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
D	Entire file received correctly

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	5:1

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Very low
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Approximately 50 ohms