US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	250 feet
C	50 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	10 watts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just above the critical frequency
C	Just below the MUF
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	All these choices are correct
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	60 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	80 ohms

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for given volume
B	Comparatively low cost
C	High stability
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	PL-259
C	Type N
D	BNC

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	50%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Filtering
C	Detection
D	Modulation

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency convolution

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	21 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point