US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	30 meters
C	11 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	RF clipping level
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	All these choices are correct
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
B	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Distorted speech
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	24 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A nickel plated version of the PL-259

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	3F1-F2
B	5F1-3F2
C	All these choices are correct
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
D	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very high

Figure G7-1