US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
C	All these choices are correct
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 12
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	200 feet
C	50 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 3
C	Region 2
D	Region 4

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	No US stations should call
C	Closing station now
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced dip
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	A wavemeter
C	A field strength meter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Bond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	400 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	67 ohms

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	6 volts
D	8.5 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Analog
C	Programmable Logic
D	Digital

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	All these choices are correct
D	Diodes

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	Less than 50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Notch depth
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Insertion loss
D	Rolloff

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Mixer interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Image response

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	5:1
C	1:2
D	1:5

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	11 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance