US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Outside the building
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	20 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Follow the voluntary band plan
C	All these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Change frequency
C	Send slower
D	Repeat everything twice

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	LSB
C	DSB
D	USB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The E region
C	The D region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
B	To prevent transient overmodulation
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	An ammeter
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
B	Using surge suppressor power outlets
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	20.6 percent
D	12.2 percent

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	Zero
D	90 degrees

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies