US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
B	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
C	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
B	All these choices are correct
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	Closing station now
C	Operating full break-in
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
B	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
C	All of the above
D	A form of Packet Radio

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ohmmeter
C	An ammeter
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
C	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	3200 watts
C	400 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	40 volts
C	25.5 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	High stability

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	RCA Phono
C	PL-259
D	BNC

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Mixer
C	Balanced converter
D	Reactance modulator

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	AMTOR
C	MFSK32
D	FT8

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground