US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The ITU
C	The FCC
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	30 days
D	365 days

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
B	Poor propagation at any time of day
C	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
D	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce harmonic radiation
B	To prevent excessive drive
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To increase overall efficiency

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The battery charging system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	245 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	3.0 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	33.3 microfarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Inherently more stable
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
C	The signal is 3 dB over S9
D	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	16 feet
C	11 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground