US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 12
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	17 meters
C	30 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	250 feet
C	200 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	21 years
B	There is no age limit
C	16 years
D	18 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Reduce long delayed echoes

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F1 region
C	The E region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	An oscilloscope
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	A series resistor must be in place
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
B	Resistance is cancelled
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.00
C	2.00
D	1.414

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase efficiency

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	AM
C	SSB
D	All these choices are correct

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Zero
B	45 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The opposite of fade margin
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
D	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The ratio
C	The arithmetic product
D	The average

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	AMTOR
C	FT8
D	MSK144

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Lazy H
C	Sloper
D	Inverted L

Figure G7-1