US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	All these choices are correct
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Follow the voluntary band plan
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
C	To follow standard radiogram structure
D	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Susceptance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	100 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1,733 picofarads
B	576.9 nanofarads
C	10.750 nanofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	FM
C	All these choices are correct
D	SSB

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Notch depth
B	Insertion loss
C	Rolloff
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
D	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	24 feet
C	8 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic suppression
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Polarization diversity
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

Figure G7-1