US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	Only the ground wire
C	Only the neutral wire
D	All wires

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Observation of propagation and reception
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	All these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets have priority
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	100 percent copy
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	LSB
C	USB
D	DSB

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the LUF
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	1.00
C	1.414
D	0.707

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Analog
B	MMIC
C	Digital
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Fewer digital components are required

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
B	Upper case letters are sent with more power
C	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
D	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
B	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
C	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length