US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Electrical safety of the station

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	50 feet
C	250 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Follow the voluntary band plan
C	All these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
B	Always call on the station’s frequency
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	Only at the minimum point
C	Only at the maximum point
D	At any point

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the MUF
B	Just below the critical frequency
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two swept frequency tones

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	“Picket fencing”
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	84.8 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Mutual inductance
D	Displacement current coupling

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
B	Its thickness
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	Only one diode is required
C	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	5F1-3F2
C	3F1-F2
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using the Varicode character set
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using a parity bit with each character

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	1:4
C	1:2
D	2:1

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very high
D	Approximately 50 ohms