US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	20 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Follow the voluntary band plan
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	100 percent copy
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	All these choices are correct
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	All these choices are correct
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	All these choices are correct
C	Check the A-index
D	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To increase the “Q” of the antenna

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.6 percent
B	12.2 percent
C	25.9 percent
D	10.9 percent

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	0.30 henries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Notch depth
B	Rolloff
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Preamble
C	Header
D	Trailer

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	5:1
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	In the plane of the loop
B	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
C	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
D	Broadside to the loop

Figure G7-1