US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its duty cycle
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable modulation limits

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	17 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 2
C	Region 1
D	Region 4

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only digital contacts

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
D	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	60 meters and 40 meters
D	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When high precision is desired
D	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Bypass inductor
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Forward-biased diode

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	“Picket fencing”
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	Comparatively low cost
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Inherently more stable
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Audio extracted from the modulation signal

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	RF input
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
D	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Very low
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very high