US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
D	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	21 years
C	There is no age limit
D	16 years

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
D	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
C	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
D	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	2500 watts
C	5000 watts
D	8.75 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	Peak and valley current points
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	RCA Phono
C	Type N
D	PL-259

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An analog mixer
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase transformation
D	Phase inversion

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	416.7 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Entire file received correctly
C	Request retransmission of the packet
D	Packet was received without error

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	21 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the loop
B	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
C	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
D	In the plane of the loop

Figure G7-1