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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

SelectAnswer
AAny ordinary smoke detector can be used
BBy the odor
COnly with a carbon monoxide detector
DBy the yellowish appearance of the gas

2. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
BThe amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
CThe amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
DIts operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft

3. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

SelectAnswer
AAn emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
BAny transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
CAn amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
DA signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient

4. - E1C09

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A1.0
B3.0
C2.0
D0.5

5. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

SelectAnswer
AAny amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
BOnly those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
CAny amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
DOnly those of Amateur Extra Class operators

6. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

SelectAnswer
AFriends of the VE
BEmployees of the VE
CRelatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
DAll these choices are correct

7. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

SelectAnswer
ACommunications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
BCommunications in a language other than English
CCommunications that have religious content
DCommunications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

8. - E2A13

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

SelectAnswer
ADigipeating
BNode hopping
CStore-and-forward
DMulti-satellite relaying

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

SelectAnswer
ATo identify the call sign of the station transmitting
BTo lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
CTo identify the SSTV mode being used
DTo provide vertical synchronization

10. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

SelectAnswer
ARepeater contacts between U.S. club members
BSpecial event contacts between stations in the U.S.
CContacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
DContacts using tactical call signs

11. - E2D09

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

SelectAnswer
AIEEE 802.11
BRTTY
CMulti-tone AFSK
DPSK

12. - E2E03

How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?

SelectAnswer
AIt depends on the lunar phase
BBy exchanging ACK/NAK packets
CAlternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals
DStations take turns on alternate days

13. - E3A12

What is the cause of auroral activity?

SelectAnswer
AMeteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
BAn extreme low-pressure area in the polar regions
CThe interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
DThe interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

14. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
APropagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
BPropagation between points located on the magnetic equator
CPropagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point
DPropagation between points at the same latitude

15. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

SelectAnswer
AClass M
BClass X
CClass B
DClass A

16. - E4A08

Which of the following measures SWR?

SelectAnswer
AA Q meter
BAn antenna analyzer
CAn ohmmeter
DA spectrum analyzer

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
BThere is more power going into the antenna
CThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
DThe transmitter is not properly neutralized

18. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A-155 dBm
B-174 dBm
C-148 dBm
D-164 dBm

19. - E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
BOscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
CCross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
DSpurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals

20. - E4E07

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

SelectAnswer
ATying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
BUse of braided shielding material
CCommon-mode currents on the shield and conductors
DLow inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield

21. - E5A06

What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AIt equals 2 multiplied by pi, multiplied by frequency, multiplied by inductance
BIt equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
CIt is at a maximum
DIt is at a minimum

22. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage and current are in phase
BVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
CCurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees
DVoltage leads current by 90 degrees

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

SelectAnswer
ARectangular coordinates
BElliptical coordinates
CFaraday grid
DMaidenhead grid

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A0.866
B1.73
C0.5
D0.577

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

SelectAnswer
AOnly N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
BExcess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
COnly P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
DHoles in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AForward DC bias current
BA sub-harmonic pump signal
CCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
DReverse voltage larger than the RF signal

27. - E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

SelectAnswer
AIt has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
BIt is immune to electrostatic damage
CIts simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
DAll these choices are correct

28. - E6D12

What is inductor saturation?

SelectAnswer
AAdjacent inductors become over-coupled
BThe ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
CThe inductor windings are over-coupled
DThe inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover

29. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

SelectAnswer
AGallium nitride
BSilicon nitride
CSilicon
DSilicon dioxide

30. - E6F07

What is a solid-state relay?

SelectAnswer
AA semiconductor passive delay line
BA device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
CA mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
DA relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

31. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

SelectAnswer
AIt stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
BIt produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
CIt switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
DIt maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

32. - E7B01

For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull Class AB amplifier conduct?

SelectAnswer
AExactly 180 degrees
BMore than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
CThe entire cycle
DLess than 180 degrees

33. - E7C03

What advantage does a series-L Pi-L-network have over a series-L Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

SelectAnswer
ADoes not require a capacitor
BGreater transformation range
CGreater harmonic suppression
DHigher efficiency

34. - E7D01

How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a ramp voltage as its output
BThe control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
CThe conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
DIt eliminates the need for a pass transistor

35. - E7E11

Which type of detector circuit is used for demodulating SSB signals?

SelectAnswer
AProduct detector
BPhase comparator
CPhase detector
DDiscriminator

36. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

SelectAnswer
AProvide access for debugging software
BProvide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
CTo reduce excess signal pressure levels
DSelect the point at which baseband signals are generated

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

SelectAnswer
AA reduction in high frequency response
BAn echo caused by a long time delay
CUndesired oscillations added to the desired signal
DPartial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

38. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

SelectAnswer
AReduce noise on the oscillator's power supply
BMechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
CUse NP0 capacitors
DIncrease the bias voltage

39. - E8A02

Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

SelectAnswer
AHarmonic regeneration
BPhase reversal
CSuccessive approximation
DLevel shifting

40. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.167
B60
C0.6
D1.67

41. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
ABaud is only used for RTTY
BSymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
CThey are the same
DBaud is twice the symbol rate

42. - E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

SelectAnswer
ABit errors in the modem
BExcessive transmit audio levels
CExcessive numbers of retries
DGround loops

43. - E9A09

What is antenna efficiency?

SelectAnswer
ARadiation resistance divided by total resistance
BEffective radiated power divided by transmitter output
CTotal resistance divided by radiation resistance
DRadiation resistance divided by transmission resistance

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A7.5 degrees
B75 degrees
C45 degrees
D25 degrees

45. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
BThe main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
CThe main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
DThe horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction

46. - E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

SelectAnswer
A4 dB
B3 dB
C6 dB
D2 dB

47. - E9E09

Which of the following is used to shunt-feed a grounded tower at its base?

SelectAnswer
AHairpin match
BGamma match
CDouble-bazooka match
DAll these choices are correct

48. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

SelectAnswer
AThe surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
BSkin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
CThe characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
DElectrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

49. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AResistance lines and reactance chords
BVoltage lines and current chords
CVoltage circles and current arcs
DResistance circles and reactance arcs

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a bidirectional pattern
BIt is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
CAll these choices are correct
DIt has no clearly defined null

Figure E9-2