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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

SelectAnswer
AEnsure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
BEnsure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
CEnsure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
DEnsure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits

2. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
BThe control operator of the packet bulletin board station
CThe control operator of the originating station
DThe control operators of all the stations in the system

3. - E1B12

What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 cm band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

SelectAnswer
ACease operation or make changes to the repeater to mitigate the interference
BReduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
CFile an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
DAll these choices are correct

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

SelectAnswer
AMessages intended for users of the maritime satellite service
BAll these choices are correct
CCommunications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
DBusiness-related messages for non-profit organizations

5. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
A2 meters
B6 meters and 2 meters
C6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
D2 meters and 1.25 meters

6. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

SelectAnswer
AEach administering VE
BThe VEC coordinating the session
CThe VE session manager
DThe FCC

7. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

SelectAnswer
AWhen the total money involved does not exceed $25
BWhen neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
CWhen the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
DWhen transmitting international third-party communications

8. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

SelectAnswer
AThe polarization of uplink and downlink signals
BThe uplink and downlink frequency ranges
CThe location of the ground control station
DPower limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

9. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

SelectAnswer
AChroma
BLuminance
CSpectral intensity
DHue

10. - E2C01

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the U.S.?

SelectAnswer
ANo additional indicator is required
B/ followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
C/R# where # is the district of the remote station
D/ followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station

11. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

SelectAnswer
AUnnumbered Information
BConnect
CAcknowledgement
DDisconnect

12. - E2E07

Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?

SelectAnswer
AThe protocol version you are using is not supported by the digital station
BAnother station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
CYour transmit frequency is incorrect
DAll these choices are correct

13. - E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

SelectAnswer
ARTTY
BFM
CSSB
DCW

14. - E3B10

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector
BSignals travel faster along ionospheric chords
CThe MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
DAtmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation

15. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

SelectAnswer
AAn increase in the critical frequency
BDecreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
CHigher levels of solar UV radiation
DIncreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field

16. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

SelectAnswer
AModulation monitor
BLogic analyzer
CNetwork analyzer
DBit error rate tester

17. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
ADecade divider accuracy
BTime base accuracy
CInput attenuator accuracy
DTemperature coefficient of the logic

18. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe maximum detectable spectrum
BThe meter display sensitivity
CThe minimum discernible signal
DThe multiplex distortion stability

19. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

SelectAnswer
ATo increase rejection of signals outside the desired band
BTo store often-used frequencies
CTo allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
DTo provide a range of AGC time constants

20. - E4E01

What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

SelectAnswer
ARemoval of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
BAny nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
CReceived CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
DRinging in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

21. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AHigh, as compared to the circuit resistance
BApproximately equal to circuit resistance
CApproximately equal to inductive reactance
DApproximately equal to capacitive reactance

22. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage and current are in phase
BVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
CVoltage leads current by 90 degrees
DCurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees

23. - E5C12

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 1
BPoint 7
CPoint 8
DPoint 3

24. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BTo increase the thermal time constant
CTo maintain component lifetime
DTo avoid unwanted inductive reactance

25. - E6A10

In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

SelectAnswer
A6
B4
C2
D5

26. - E6B10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

SelectAnswer
A7
B1
C6
D5

27. - E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

SelectAnswer
AIts simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
BAll these choices are correct
CIt is immune to electrostatic damage
DIt has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors

28. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

SelectAnswer
APermeability
BResistance
CReactivity
DThermal impedance

29. - E6E10

What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

SelectAnswer
AShorter circuit-board traces
BAll these choices are correct
CSmaller circuit area
DComponents have less parasitic inductance and capacitance

30. - E6F06

Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

SelectAnswer
AAn ordinary metal
BA liquid semiconductor
CA heavy metal
DA crystalline semiconductor

31. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter?

SelectAnswer
AIt decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
BIt produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
CIt decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
DIt produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse

32. - E7B15

What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BSelect transistors with high beta
CUse a resistor in series with the emitter
DNeutralization

33. - E7C11

Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

SelectAnswer
ANoise factor
BPassband ripple
CShape factor
DPhase response

34. - E7D12

What is the dropout voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
BMaximum output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
CMaximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
DMinimum input voltage for rated power dissipation

35. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

SelectAnswer
AA reactance modulator on the final amplifier
BA reactance modulator on the oscillator
CA balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
DA balanced modulator on the oscillator

36. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce excess signal pressure levels
BProvide access for debugging software
CProvide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
DSelect the point at which baseband signals are generated

37. - E7G01

What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

SelectAnswer
AVery high
B1000 ohms
C100 ohms
DVery low

38. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a capacitive divider
BThrough a tapped coil
CThrough a neutralizing capacitor
DThrough link coupling

39. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

SelectAnswer
AImmunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
BAll these choices are correct
CVery low power consumption decreases frequency drift
DVery high speed allows digitizing high frequencies

40. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
BTwo or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
CTwo or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
DTwo or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter

41. - E8C10

How may data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AUsing forward error correction
BIncreasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
CIt is impossible
DUsing a more efficient digital code

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

SelectAnswer
AIncrease keying waveform rise and fall times
BHigh-pass filters at the transmitter output
CLow-pass filters at the transmitter output
DReduce keying waveform rise and fall times

43. - E9A01

What is an isotropic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA grounded antenna used to measure Earth conductivity
BA spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
CA theoretical, omnidirectional antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
DA horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas

44. - E9B10

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

SelectAnswer
AA wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
BA wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
CA wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
DA wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current

45. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
BThe horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
CThe main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
DThe main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction

46. - E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

SelectAnswer
A4 dB
B3 dB
C2 dB
D6 dB

47. - E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

SelectAnswer
AInsert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
BConnect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
CInsert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
DConnect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

48. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AVery low impedance
BThe same as the generator output impedance
CVery high impedance
DThe same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

49. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency
BSWR
CPoints with constant resistance
DPoints with constant reactance

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls
BTo narrow the receiver bandwidth
CTo compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
DTo increase receiver sensitivity

Figure E5-1

Figure E6-1

Figure E6-2