US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
C	Ground reflections and scattering make the field strength vary with location
D	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

2. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Any FCC-issued amateur license
C	Only General Class or higher amateur licenses
D	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

3. - E1B05

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

Select	Answer
A	An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
B	An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
C	An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
D	An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope

4. - E1C01

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

Select	Answer
A	60 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	2.8 kHz
D	1.5 kHz

5. - E1D04

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

Select	Answer
A	Call sign
B	The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
C	The output power of the balloon transmitter
D	All these choices are correct

6. - E1E12

What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Select	Answer
A	Destroy the application form
B	Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
C	Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
D	Return the application document to the examinee

7. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications that have religious content
B	Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
C	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
D	Communications in a language other than English

8. - E2A13

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-satellite relaying
B	Digipeating
C	Store-and-forward
D	Node hopping

9. - E2B01

How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

Select	Answer
A	30
B	120
C	60
D	90

10. - E2C04

Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

Select	Answer
A	Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
B	The 60 meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
C	Cable TV channels 41 through 43
D	HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted

11. - E2D04

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Ultrasonics
B	Bandwidth compressed LORAN
C	Doppler shift of beacon signals
D	APRS

12. - E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR
B	PSK31
C	MT63
D	RTTY

13. - E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	RTTY
C	FM
D	CW

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	10 meters
B	20 meters
C	6 meters
D	80 meters

15. - E3C09

How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

Select	Answer
A	10 percent greater
B	50 percent greater
C	Four times as great
D	Twice as great

16. - E4A04

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
B	A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
C	A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
D	A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

17. - E4B11

Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Reflection coefficient
B	Input impedance
C	Output impedance
D	All these choices are correct

18. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The multiplex distortion stability
B	The minimum discernible signal
C	The maximum detectable spectrum
D	The meter display sensitivity

19. - E4D06

What is the term for spurious signals generated by the combination of two or more signals in a non-linear device or circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Neutralization
B	Intermodulation
C	Amplifier desensitization
D	Adjacent channel interference

20. - E4E07

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
B	Use of braided shielding material
C	Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
D	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield

21. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

Select	Answer
A	47.3 kHz
B	157.8 Hz
C	23.67 kHz
D	315.6 Hz

22. - E5B01

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

Select	Answer
A	One time constant
B	One exponential period
C	A time factor of one
D	An exponential rate of one

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Maidenhead grid
B	Faraday grid
C	Elliptical coordinates
D	Rectangular coordinates

24. - E5D10

How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
B	By multiplying the apparent power by the power factor
C	By multiplying the reactive power by the power factor
D	By dividing the apparent power by the power factor

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

Select	Answer
A	They are both low impedance
B	They are both high impedance
C	An FET has lower input impedance
D	An FET has higher input impedance

26. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive inverse voltage
B	Insufficient forward voltage
C	Charge carrier depletion
D	Excessive junction temperature

27. - E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
B	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
C	All these choices are correct
D	It is immune to electrostatic damage

28. - E6D07

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

Select	Answer
A	Excitation current
B	Stabilizing current
C	Direct current
D	Magnetizing current

29. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
B	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
C	Low leakage doubly insulated package
D	Package mounts in a direct inverted position

30. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

Select	Answer
A	A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
B	A device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
C	A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
D	A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

31. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	4
C	2
D	8

32. - E7B17

Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
B	Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
C	Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
D	Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal

33. - E7C09

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
B	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
C	A filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
D	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals

34. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
B	Input voltage multiplied by input current
C	Output voltage multiplied by output current
D	Input voltage divided by output current

35. - E7E10

How does a diode envelope detector function?

Select	Answer
A	By rectification and filtering of RF signals
B	By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
C	By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
D	By breakdown of the Zener voltage

36. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Sample clock phase noise
B	Sample width in bits
C	Sample rate
D	Processor latency

37. - E7G04

What is meant by the "op-amp input offset voltage"?

Select	Answer
A	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
B	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
C	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
D	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

38. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a quartz crystal
B	Through a tapped coil
C	Through link coupling
D	Through a neutralizing capacitor

39. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplifier gain
B	The degree of carrier suppression
C	Speech characteristics
D	The frequency of the modulating signal

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
B	The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
C	The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
D	The type of modulation used by the transmitter

41. - E8C06

What is the bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 kHz
B	1.0 kHz
C	0.1 Hz
D	0.3 kHz

42. - E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

Select	Answer
A	It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
B	It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
C	It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
D	It includes built-in error correction features

43. - E9A07

What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	632 watts
B	159 watts
C	63.2 watts
D	252 watts

44. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	Azimuth
B	Elevation
C	Polarization
D	Radiation resistance

45. - E9C06

What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the ground loss
B	It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
C	It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
D	It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional

46. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
B	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
C	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
D	A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground

47. - E9E01

What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

Select	Answer
A	The delta matching system
B	The gamma matching system
C	The stub matching system
D	The omega matching system

48. - E9F08

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Foam dielectric has higher velocity factor
C	Foam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits
D	Foam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length

49. - E9G05

Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
B	Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
C	Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
D	Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters

50. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
B	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
C	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
D	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source

Figure E9-2