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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

SelectAnswer
AEach transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
BEach transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded.
COnly commercial transmitters
DOnly the most powerful transmitter

2. - E1A14

Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A1 watt EIRP
B50 watts PEP
C5 watts EIRP
D100 watts PEP

3. - E1B12

What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 cm band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

SelectAnswer
AFile an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
BCease operation or make changes to the repeater to mitigate the interference
CAll these choices are correct
DReduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)

4. - E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

SelectAnswer
A3 minutes
B5 minutes
C30 seconds
D10 minutes

5. - E1D01

What is the definition of telemetry?

SelectAnswer
ATwo-way transmissions of data
BOne-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
CTwo-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
DOne-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

6. - E1E12

What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

SelectAnswer
ASend the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
BMaintain the application form with the VEC's records
CReturn the application document to the examinee
DDestroy the application form

7. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

SelectAnswer
AA line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the U.S. and Mexico
BA line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the U.S. and Canada
CA line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
DA line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline

8. - E2A13

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

SelectAnswer
ANode hopping
BMulti-satellite relaying
CDigipeating
DStore-and-forward

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

SelectAnswer
ATo lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
BTo provide vertical synchronization
CTo identify the SSTV mode being used
DTo identify the call sign of the station transmitting

10. - E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

SelectAnswer
A33 centimeters
B6 meters
C30 meters
D2 meters

11. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate station location?

SelectAnswer
APolar coordinates
BLatitude and longitude
CTime and frequency
DRadio direction finding spectrum analysis

12. - E2E12

How do ALE stations establish contact?

SelectAnswer
AALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
BALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
CALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
DALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on

13. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs in association with what phenomenon?

SelectAnswer
AGrayline
BWarm and cold fronts
CLightning discharges
DSprites and jets

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
A20 meters
B6 meters
C10 meters
D80 meters

15. - E3C12

How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

SelectAnswer
AIt stays the same
BIt peaks at roughly 14 MHz
CIt decreases
DIt increases

16. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

SelectAnswer
AA false, jittery low-frequency version of the signal is displayed
BAll signals will have a DC offset
CCalibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
DExcessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the signal

17. - E4B10

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
BModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
CModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
DModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer

18. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A-174 dBm
B-155 dBm
C-164 dBm
D-148 dBm

19. - E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

SelectAnswer
AOdd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
BOdd-order products of two signals in the band of interest are also likely to be within the band
COdd-order products overload the IF filters
DOdd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

20. - E4E10

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

SelectAnswer
AArcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
BA malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
CAll these choices are correct
DA defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

21. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AHigh compared to the circuit resistance
BApproximately equal to inductive reactance
CApproximately equal to circuit resistance
DLow compared to the circuit resistance

22. - E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

23. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
ABy X and R values
BBy phase angle and magnitude
CBy Y and G values
DBy real and imaginary parts

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

SelectAnswer
AWattless, nonproductive power
BPower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
CPower lost because of capacitor leakage
DPower consumed in circuit Q

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

SelectAnswer
AAn FET has lower input impedance
BAn FET has higher input impedance
CThey are both high impedance
DThey are both low impedance

26. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

SelectAnswer
AAs a constant voltage reference in a power supply
BAs a rectifier in high current power supplies
CAs a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
DAs a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit

27. - E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

SelectAnswer
AIt has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
BAll these choices are correct
CIt is immune to electrostatic damage
DIts simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS

28. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a core in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AFerrite and brass
BTeflon and Delrin
CPolystyrene and polyethylene
DCobalt and aluminum

29. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

SelectAnswer
ASilicon
BSilicon dioxide
CSilicon nitride
DGallium nitride

30. - E6F06

Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

SelectAnswer
AA liquid semiconductor
BA crystalline semiconductor
CA heavy metal
DAn ordinary metal

31. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

SelectAnswer
AAssertive Logic
BNegative logic
CReverse Logic
DPositive Logic

32. - E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AInstall parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
BTune both the input and output for maximum power
CUse a phase inverter in the output filter
DTune the stage for maximum SWR

33. - E7C09

What is a crystal lattice filter?

SelectAnswer
AA power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
BAn audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
CA filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
DA filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance

34. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

SelectAnswer
APrevention of battery undercharge
BMatching of day and night charge rates
CControl of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
DPrevention of battery damage due to overcharge

35. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
AAutomatic limiting occurs
BA beat frequency is generated
CMixer blanking occurs
DSpurious mixer products are generated

36. - E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling SDR receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

SelectAnswer
AReference voltage level and sample width in bits
BSample clock phase noise
CMissing codes and jitter
DData storage transfer rate

37. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

SelectAnswer
ARestrict both gain and Q
BIncrease both gain and Q
CRestrict gain but increase Q
DRestrict Q but increase gain

38. - E7H02

What is a microphonic?

SelectAnswer
AChanges in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
BExcess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
CDistortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
DAn IC used for amplifying microphone signals

39. - E8A02

Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

SelectAnswer
APhase reversal
BSuccessive approximation
CLevel shifting
DHarmonic regeneration

40. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

SelectAnswer
AExtremely low-power contacts
BHigh-speed digital modes
CEME
DOFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

41. - E8C06

What is the bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

SelectAnswer
A0.1 Hz
B0.5 kHz
C0.3 kHz
D1.0 kHz

42. - E8D08

What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

SelectAnswer
ARepeat Request Rate (RRR)
BIntermodulation Distortion (IMD)
CSignal-to-noise ratio
DBaud rate

43. - E9A08

What is antenna bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna length divided by the number of elements
BThe angle between the half-power radiation points
CThe frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
DThe angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

44. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
AAzimuth
BElevation
CPolarization
DRadiation resistance

45. - E9C13

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with increasing height above ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases
BThe takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases
CThe horizontal beamwidth decreases
DThe horizontal beamwidth increases

46. - E9D05

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
BThe front-to-back ratio increases
CThe front-to-back ratio decreases
DThe SWR is reduced

47. - E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

SelectAnswer
AInsert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
BConnect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
CInsert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
DConnect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

48. - E9F04

What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
BVery high impedance
CThe same as the output impedance of the generator
DVery low impedance

49. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna-length circles
BStanding wave ratio circles
CRadiation-pattern circles
DCoaxial-length circles

50. - E9H09

What is a Pennant antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity
BA small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms
CA stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
DA four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant

Figure E9-2