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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

SelectAnswer
AEnsure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
BEnsure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
CEnsure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
DEnsure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits

2. - E1A03

What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A14.070 MHz
B14.149 MHz
C14.100 MHz
D14.349 MHz

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

SelectAnswer
AA letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
BA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
CAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
DA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

SelectAnswer
AMessages intended for users of the maritime satellite service
BAll these choices are correct
CCommunications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
DBusiness-related messages for non-profit organizations

5. - E1D02

Which of the following may transmit special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages?

SelectAnswer
AAuxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
BTelecommand signals from a space telecommand station
CBinary control characters
DData containing personal information

6. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

SelectAnswer
AA sentence of up to one year in prison
BAll these choices are correct
CA fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
DRevocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant

7. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
BIt must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
CIt must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
DIt must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

8. - E2A04

What is meant by the term mode? as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
AWhether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
BWhether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
CThe satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
DThe satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth

9. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

SelectAnswer
ASpread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
BAmplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
CNarrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
DA type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

10. - E2C01

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the U.S.?

SelectAnswer
A/R# where # is the district of the remote station
B/ followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
CNo additional indicator is required
D/ followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station

11. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

SelectAnswer
AHigh-speed CW identification to avoid fading
BStoring and forwarding digital messages
CJudging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
DTime synchronous transmissions alternately from each station

12. - E2E12

How do ALE stations establish contact?

SelectAnswer
AALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
BALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
CALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
DALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter

13. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

SelectAnswer
AA slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
BThe returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
CA fluttery irregular fading
DA gradual loss of signal as the sun rises

14. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters to 10 meters
BOnly 30 meters to 10 meters
COnly 160 meters to 40 meters
D6 meters to 2 meters

15. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AVertical
BElliptical
CHorizontal
DCircular

16. - E4A01

Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

SelectAnswer
AAmount of memory
BSampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
CQ of the circuit
DAll these choices are correct

17. - E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

SelectAnswer
A75 watts
B25 watts
C125 watts
D100 watts

18. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe meter display sensitivity
BThe minimum discernible signal
CThe multiplex distortion stability
DThe maximum detectable spectrum

19. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

SelectAnswer
AQuieting
BDesensitization
CSquelch gain rollback
DCross-modulation interference

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

SelectAnswer
AFM signals can no longer be demodulated
BThe audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
CReceived audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
DNearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards

21. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?

SelectAnswer
A1.78 MHz
B44.72 MHz
C22.36 MHz
D3.56 MHz

22. - E5B12

What is admittance?

SelectAnswer
AThe inverse of Q factor
BThe term for the gain of a field effect transistor
CThe turns ratio of a transformer
DThe inverse of impedance

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

SelectAnswer
AFaraday grid
BElliptical coordinates
CRectangular coordinates
DMaidenhead grid

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

SelectAnswer
APower lost because of capacitor leakage
BPower consumed in circuit Q
CPower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
DWattless, nonproductive power

25. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

SelectAnswer
AAn FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
BAn FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
CAny FET without a channel
DAny FET for which holes are the majority carriers

26. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

SelectAnswer
AInsufficient forward voltage
BCharge carrier depletion
CExcessive junction temperature
DExcessive inverse voltage

27. - E6C10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
A1
B4
C3
D2

28. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe skin effect
BInductive kickback
CInter-turn capacitance
DNon-linear core hysteresis

29. - E6E12

Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AToo many pins
BExcessive lead length
CEpoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz
DUnsuitable for combining analog and digital signals

30. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

SelectAnswer
AThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
BThe conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
CThe conversion of light to electrical energy
DThe tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light

31. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 1 at its output only if all inputs are logic 1
BIt produces logic 1 at its output if only one input is logic 1
CIt produces logic 0 at its output if only one input is logic 1
DIt produces logic 0 at its output only if all inputs are logic 0

32. - E7B02

What is a Class D amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AA frequency doubling amplifier
BA type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
CA low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
DAn amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency

33. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

SelectAnswer
AIt introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
BIt cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
CIt introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
DReactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances

34. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

SelectAnswer
AA constant current source
BA shunt regulator
CA shunt current source
DA series regulator

35. - E7E11

Which type of detector circuit is used for demodulating SSB signals?

SelectAnswer
ADiscriminator
BProduct detector
CPhase detector
DPhase comparator

36. - E7F07

What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

SelectAnswer
AConverting 8-bit data to 16-bit data
BConverting analog signals to digital form
CConverting digital signals to analog form
DConverting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain

37. - E7G01

What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

SelectAnswer
AVery high
B1000 ohms
C100 ohms
DVery low

38. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?

SelectAnswer
ATaft, Pierce and negative feedback
BTaft, Hartley and Pierce
CColpitts, Hartley and Pierce
DPierce, Fenner and Beane

39. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency of the modulating signal
BAmplifier gain
CThe degree of carrier suppression
DSpeech characteristics

40. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.6
B60
C1.67
D0.167

41. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
ABaud is only used for RTTY
BSymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
CThey are the same
DBaud is twice the symbol rate

42. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe generation of RF harmonics
BMore difficult to copy
CLimits data speed
DThe generation of key clicks

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
BAntenna height
CTransmission line length
DThe input power level

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A7.5 degrees
B75 degrees
C45 degrees
D25 degrees

45. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

SelectAnswer
AThe low-angle radiation increases
BFewer vertical angle lobes will be present
CThe low-angle radiation decreases
DAdditional higher vertical angle lobes will appear

46. - E9D06

What happens to the SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt is increased
BIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
CIt is decreased
DIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point

47. - E9E09

Which of the following is used to shunt-feed a grounded tower at its base?

SelectAnswer
AHairpin match
BGamma match
CDouble-bazooka match
DAll these choices are correct

48. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AAn inductive reactance
BA capacitive reactance
CZero
DThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line

49. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

SelectAnswer
ACoaxial-length circles
BRadiation-pattern circles
CStanding wave ratio circles
DAntenna-length circles

50. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
BIt increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
CIt provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
DIt allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-2