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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A03

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

SelectAnswer
A3 to 30 MHz
B300 to 3000 MHz
C30 to 300 MHz
D300 kHz to 3 MHz

2. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

SelectAnswer
AAny FCC-issued amateur license
BAn unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
CAny amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
DOnly General Class or higher amateur licenses

3. - E1B05

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

SelectAnswer
AAn area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
BAn area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
CAn area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
DAn area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory

4. - E1C07

At what level below a signal's mean power level is its bandwidth determined according to FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
A6 dB
B26 dB
C3 dB
D23 dB

5. - E1D03

What is a space telecommand station?

SelectAnswer
AAn amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
BAn amateur station located in a satellite or a balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
CAn amateur station located on the surface of the Earth for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
DAn amateur station that receives telemetry from a satellite or balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth

6. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

SelectAnswer
AA fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
BRevocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
CAll these choices are correct
DA sentence of up to one year in prison

7. - E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide for experimental amateur communications
BTo provide additional spectrum for personal use
CTo provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
DTo allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels

8. - E2A13

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

SelectAnswer
AMulti-satellite relaying
BNode hopping
CStore-and-forward
DDigipeating

9. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

SelectAnswer
AChroma
BSpectral intensity
CHue
DLuminance

10. - E2C12

What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

SelectAnswer
AForward error correction and Viterbi codes
BActing as store-and-forward digipeaters
CDiscovery and link establishment protocols
DCustom code plugs for the local trunking systems

11. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

SelectAnswer
AUnnumbered Information
BDisconnect
CConnect
DAcknowledgement

12. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

SelectAnswer
AHellschreiber
BAMTOR
CPACTOR
DRTTY

13. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
A28 MHz - 148 MHz
B1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
C10 MHz - 14 MHz
D220 MHz - 450 MHz

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

SelectAnswer
AAround the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
BAround the solstices, especially the summer solstice
CAround the solstices, especially the winter solstice
DAround the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox

15. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

SelectAnswer
AUV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
BThe ratio of x-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
CThe solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to x-ray flare levels
DThe solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity

16. - E4A09

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BNever use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
CNever use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
DKeep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible

17. - E4B10

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
BModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
CModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
DModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer

18. - E4C05

What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
BThe noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
CThe theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
DThe minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency

19. - E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

SelectAnswer
AOdd-order products of two signals in the band of interest are also likely to be within the band
BOdd-order products overload the IF filters
COdd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
DOdd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

20. - E4E01

What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

SelectAnswer
AAny nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
BRemoval of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
CRinging in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
DReceived CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency

21. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

SelectAnswer
AInternal voltages increase
BPhase shift can become uncontrolled
CParasitic effects are minimized
DFewer components are needed for the same performance

22. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage leads current by 90 degrees
BVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
CVoltage and current are in phase
DCurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees

23. - E5C10

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 4
BPoint 6
CPoint 2
DPoint 5

24. - E5D09

What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

SelectAnswer
AIt is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
BIt is dissipated as heat in the circuit
CIt is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
DIt is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated

25. - E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

SelectAnswer
AThe change in collector current with respect to base current
BThe frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
CThe switching speed
DThe breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

26. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

SelectAnswer
AAs a constant voltage reference in a power supply
BAs a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
CAs a rectifier in high current power supplies
DAs a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit

27. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

SelectAnswer
ALower distortion
BLower power consumption
CImmune to damage from static discharge
DDifferential output capability

28. - E6D07

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

SelectAnswer
ADirect current
BExcitation current
CMagnetizing current
DStabilizing current

29. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
ASurface mount
BTO-220
CAxial lead
DRadial lead

30. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases
BIt stays the same
CIt decreases
DIt becomes unstable

31. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 1 at its output if only one input is logic 1
BIt produces logic 0 at its output if only one input is logic 1
CIt produces logic 1 at its output only if all inputs are logic 1
DIt produces logic 0 at its output only if all inputs are logic 0

32. - E7B14

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

SelectAnswer
ALinear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
BSwitching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
CSwitching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
DThe power transistor is at saturation or cutoff most of the time

33. - E7C11

Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

SelectAnswer
APhase response
BPassband ripple
CNoise factor
DShape factor

34. - E7D14

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BDischarge the capacitors when voltage is removed
CEqualize the voltage across each capacitor
DProvide a minimum load on the supply

35. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

SelectAnswer
AA balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
BA reactance modulator on the final amplifier
CA balanced modulator on the oscillator
DA reactance modulator on the oscillator

36. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation?

SelectAnswer
AConverting data to binary code decimal form
BRemoving unnecessary significant digits
CAttenuating the signal
DReducing the effective sample rate by removing samples

37. - E7G06

What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency at which the amplifier's offset voltage is zero
BThe maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
CThe frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
DThe gain of the amplifier at a filter's cutoff frequency

38. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

SelectAnswer
ANegative feedback and balanced feedback
BPierce and Zener
CArmstrong and deForest
DColpitts and Hartley

39. - E8A09

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

SelectAnswer
A256
B256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
C8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
D8

40. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.214
B0.47
C2.14
D47

41. - E8C04

What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?

SelectAnswer
AReed-Solomon character encoding
BUse of trapezoidal data pulses
CZero-sum character encoding
DUse of sinusoidal data pulses

42. - E8D06

What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

SelectAnswer
AForeign language characters can be sent
BFaster transmission rate
CSome types of errors can be detected
DThe signal can overpower interfering signals

43. - E9A02

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

SelectAnswer
A1977 watts
B78.7 watts
C420 watts
D286 watts

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A7.5 degrees
B25 degrees
C75 degrees
D45 degrees

45. - E9C04

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

SelectAnswer
AThe lobes become more perpendicular to the wire
BThe front-to-back ratio decreases
CThe vertical angle increases
DThe lobes align more in the direction of the wire

46. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

SelectAnswer
AAn electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
BAn electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
CAn electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
DA 50-ohm resistor connected to ground

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A75 ohms
B62 ohms
C450 ohms
D50 ohms

48. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

SelectAnswer
AElectrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
BSkin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
CThe surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
DThe characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

49. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ARadiation resistance
BImpedance along transmission lines
CRadio propagation
DAntenna radiation pattern

50. - E9H09

What is a Pennant antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant
BA small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms
CA stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
DA form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity

Figure E5-1

Figure E9-2