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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

SelectAnswer
AEach transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
BOnly the most powerful transmitter
CEach transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded.
DOnly commercial transmitters

2. - E1A09

What action or actions should you take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
ANotify the nearest FCC Field Engineers office
BDiscontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
CNotify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
DAll these choices are correct

3. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

SelectAnswer
A10 miles
B1 mile
C30 miles
D3 miles

4. - E1C12

On what portion of the 630 meter band are phone emissions permitted?

SelectAnswer
AThe entire band
BOnly the top 3 kHz
COnly the bottom 3 kHz
DNone

5. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations (subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station)?

SelectAnswer
AAny amateur station so designated by the ITU
BAny amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
CAny amateur station designated by NASA
DAll these choices are correct

6. - E1E02

Who does Part 97 task with maintaining the pools of questions for all U.S. amateur license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AThe VEs
BThe VECs
CThe FCC
DThe ARRL

7. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

SelectAnswer
AOnly on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
BOnly on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
COnly on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
DOnly on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

8. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
APSK and packet
BFM and CW
CSSB and SSTV
DAll these choices are correct

9. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

SelectAnswer
AA special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
BA special front end limiter
CNo other hardware is needed
DA special IF converter

10. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

SelectAnswer
AA standard for submission of electronic contest logs
BA method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
CThe rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
DThe most common set of contest rules

11. - E2D04

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

SelectAnswer
ABandwidth compressed LORAN
BDoppler shift of beacon signals
CUltrasonics
DAPRS

12. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

SelectAnswer
AFatal Error Correction
BFirst Error Correction
CFinal Error Correction
DForward Error Correction

13. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

SelectAnswer
AMountain ranges
BForests
CUrban areas
DBodies of water

14. - E3B10

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

SelectAnswer
ASignals travel faster along ionospheric chords
BAtmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
CThe signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector
DThe MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation

15. - E3C15

What might be indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

SelectAnswer
AA temperature inversion has occurred
BLong-path propagation is likely
CIncreased transequatorial propagation is likely
DA solar flare has occurred

16. - E4A08

Which of the following measures SWR?

SelectAnswer
AA spectrum analyzer
BAn ohmmeter
CAn antenna analyzer
DA Q meter

17. - E4B08

Which of the following can be used to measure the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency shift
BThe bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
CThe resonant frequency of the circuit
DThe inductance to capacitance ratio

18. - E4C08

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

SelectAnswer
AOne-half the maximum sampling buffer size
BOne-half the maximum sample rate
CThe reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
DThe maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter

19. - E4D07

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

SelectAnswer
ARaise the receiver IF frequency
BDecrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
CIncrease the receiver front end gain
DSwitch from fast AGC to slow AGC

20. - E4E05

How can radio frequency interference from an AC motor be suppressed?

SelectAnswer
ABy using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
BBy installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
CBy installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
DBy installing a high-pass filter in series with the motor's power leads

21. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately equal to inductive reactance
BLow compared to the circuit resistance
CHigh compared to the circuit resistance
DApproximately equal to circuit resistance

22. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

SelectAnswer
ACurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees
BVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
CVoltage and current are in phase
DVoltage leads current by 90 degrees

23. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
AElliptical coordinates
BFaraday grid
CPolar coordinates
DMaidenhead grid

24. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A2000 watts
B400 watts
C50 watts
D80 watts

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

SelectAnswer
AExcess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
BHoles in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
COnly P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
DOnly N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

26. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

SelectAnswer
AReverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
BAbility to dissipate large amounts of power
CLow junction capacitance
DExtremely high reverse breakdown voltage

27. - E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BIts simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
CIt has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
DIt is immune to electrostatic damage

28. - E6D02

What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

SelectAnswer
AMotional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
BMotional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
CMotional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in parallel with a shunt capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
DMotional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in series

29. - E6E07

What type of transmission line is used for connections to MMICs?

SelectAnswer
AMicrostrip
BParallel wire
CMiniature coax
DCircular waveguide

30. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

SelectAnswer
AIt becomes unstable
BIt decreases
CIt increases
DIt stays the same

31. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

SelectAnswer
AJ-K flip-flop
BAstable multivibrator
CT flip-flop
DMonostable multivibrator

32. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
BWhere the load line intersects the voltage axis
CAt a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
DAt a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

33. - E7C09

What is a crystal lattice filter?

SelectAnswer
AA filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
BA power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
CA filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
DAn audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals

34. - E7D11

What is the function of the pass transistor in a linear voltage regulator circuit?

SelectAnswer
AMaintains nearly constant output voltage over a wide range of load current
BProvides a stable input impedance over a wide range of source voltage
CPermits a wide range of output voltage settings
DMaintains nearly constant output impedance over a wide range of load current

35. - E7E03

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

SelectAnswer
AA circuit for detecting FM signals
BA circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
CAn automatic band-switching circuit
DAn FM generator circuit

36. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

SelectAnswer
A8 bits
B6 bits
C4 bits
D10 bits

37. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A-0.23 volts
B0.23 volts
C-2.3 volts
D2.3 volts

38. - E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

SelectAnswer
AUse a GPS signal reference
BUse a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
CUse a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
DAll these choices are correct

39. - E8A05

What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

SelectAnswer
AA grid dip meter
BA true-RMS calculating meter
CA D'Arsonval meter
DAn absorption wave meter

40. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A1.67
B0.6
C0.167
D60

41. - E8C10

How may data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AUsing a more efficient digital code
BIt is impossible
CIncreasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
DUsing forward error correction

42. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
ABinary phase-shift keying
BFrequency hopping
CDirect sequence
DPhase compandored spread spectrum

43. - E9A05

What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

SelectAnswer
ARadiation resistance plus space impedance
BTransmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
CRadiation resistance plus transmission resistance
DRadiation resistance plus loss resistance

44. - E9B11

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

SelectAnswer
AThe antenna will become mechanically unstable
BThe computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
CGround conductivity will not be accurately modeled
DThe resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy

45. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
A72 ohms
B300 ohms
C50 ohms
D450 ohms

46. - E9D05

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
BThe front-to-back ratio decreases
CThe front-to-back ratio increases
DThe SWR is reduced

47. - E9E01

What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

SelectAnswer
AThe delta matching system
BThe stub matching system
CThe omega matching system
DThe gamma matching system

48. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

SelectAnswer
ASkin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
BElectrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
CThe surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
DThe characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

49. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

SelectAnswer
AThe reactance axis
BThe resistance axis
CThe voltage axis
DThe current axis

50. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

SelectAnswer
ABy winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
BBy increasing the number of turns and/or the area
CBy reducing the permeability of the loop shield
DBy utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-3