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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

SelectAnswer
ASynthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
BThe rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
CThe rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
DSignal Amplification Rating

2. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
BIts operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
CThe amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
DThe amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

3. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

SelectAnswer
AYou must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
BYou may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
CYou must submit engineering drawings to the FAA
DYou must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

4. - E1C14

How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200 meter or 630 meter band?

SelectAnswer
AOperators must not operate until approval is received
BOperations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
COperators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
DOperators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 km of PLC systems using those frequencies

5. - E1D04

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

SelectAnswer
AThe station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
BAll these choices are correct
CThe output power of the balloon transmitter
DCall sign

6. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

SelectAnswer
ARevocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
BA fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
CAll these choices are correct
DA sentence of up to one year in prison

7. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

SelectAnswer
AA line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
BA line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the U.S. and Mexico
CA line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline
DA line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the U.S. and Canada

8. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
ASSB and SSTV
BFM and CW
CPSK and packet
DAll these choices are correct

9. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

SelectAnswer
ANarrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
BA type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
CAmplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
DSpread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

10. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

SelectAnswer
ASpecial event contacts between stations in the U.S.
BContacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
CRepeater contacts between U.S. club members
DContacts using tactical call signs

11. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

SelectAnswer
APACTOR III
BMSK144
CJT65
DOlivia

12. - E2E01

Which of the following types of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

SelectAnswer
ADTMF tones modulating an FM signal
BSpread spectrum
CPulse modulation
DFSK

13. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs in association with what phenomenon?

SelectAnswer
AGrayline
BWarm and cold fronts
CLightning discharges
DSprites and jets

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

SelectAnswer
AAround the solstices, especially the winter solstice
BAround the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
CAround the solstices, especially the summer solstice
DAround the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox

15. - E3C09

How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

SelectAnswer
AFour times as great
BTwice as great
C10 percent greater
D50 percent greater

16. - E4A04

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

SelectAnswer
AA square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
BA high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
CA frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
DA DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
A50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
BShort circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
C50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
DShort circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit

18. - E4C08

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

SelectAnswer
AOne-half the maximum sampling buffer size
BThe maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
COne-half the maximum sample rate
DThe reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter

19. - E4D07

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

SelectAnswer
AIncrease the receiver front end gain
BSwitch from fast AGC to slow AGC
CDecrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
DRaise the receiver IF frequency

20. - E4E11

What could cause local AM broadcast band signals to combine to generate spurious signals in the MF or HF bands?

SelectAnswer
AYou are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
BNearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
CYour station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
DOne or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal

21. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately equal to inductive reactance
BHigh, as compared to the circuit resistance
CApproximately equal to circuit resistance
DApproximately equal to capacitive reactance

22. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C11

Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 7
BPoint 8
CPoint 3
DPoint 1

24. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

SelectAnswer
AIn the same direction as the current
BIn a circle around the conductor
CIn all directions; omni-directional
DIn a direction opposite to the current

25. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

SelectAnswer
AAlpha rejection frequency
BBeta cutoff frequency
CCorner frequency
DAlpha cutoff frequency

26. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

SelectAnswer
ACharge carrier depletion
BExcessive junction temperature
CExcessive inverse voltage
DInsufficient forward voltage

27. - E6C10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
A4
B2
C1
D3

28. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AReactivity
BResistance
CThermal impedance
DPermeability

29. - E6E01

Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

SelectAnswer
ALower junction voltage drop
BHigher electron mobility
CLower transconductance
DHigher noise figures

30. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
A1.5 V
B12 V
C0.1 V
D0.5 V

31. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

SelectAnswer
AReverse Logic
BNegative logic
CAssertive Logic
DPositive Logic

32. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?

SelectAnswer
APush-push
BClass C
CPush-pull
DClass AB

33. - E7C03

What advantage does a series-L Pi-L-network have over a series-L Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AGreater transformation range
BDoes not require a capacitor
CHigher efficiency
DGreater harmonic suppression

34. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
BTo allow for remote control of the power supply
CTo compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
DTo provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications

35. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

SelectAnswer
AA balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
BA reactance modulator on the final amplifier
CA balanced modulator on the oscillator
DA reactance modulator on the oscillator

36. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

SelectAnswer
AAt the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
BAt least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
CAt four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
DAt least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

37. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

SelectAnswer
A0.07
B28
C14
D7

38. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

SelectAnswer
AReduce noise on the oscillator's power supply
BIncrease the bias voltage
CMechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
DUse NP0 capacitors

39. - E8A11

Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

SelectAnswer
APeak envelope power
BPower factor
CTotal harmonic distortion
DReciprocal mixing

40. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
BTwo or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
CTwo or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
DTwo or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

41. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

SelectAnswer
ABy transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
BBy transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
CBy varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
DBy the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

SelectAnswer
AReduce keying waveform rise and fall times
BIncrease keying waveform rise and fall times
CLow-pass filters at the transmitter output
DHigh-pass filters at the transmitter output

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission line length
BAntenna height
CThe settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
DThe input power level

44. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

SelectAnswer
A50 degrees
B75 degrees
C25 degrees
D30 degrees

45. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

SelectAnswer
ACardioid
BA Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
CA Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
DOmni-directional

46. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AAt a voltage node
BAs low as possible on the vertical radiator
CAs close to the transmitter as possible
DNear the center of the vertical radiator

47. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

SelectAnswer
ATo cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
BTo transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
CTo provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
DTo provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna

48. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AAn inductive reactance
BA capacitive reactance
CInfinite
DThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line

49. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage and impedance
BResistance and reactance
CReactance and voltage
DResistance and voltage

50. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt should be configured as a four-sided loop
BIt should be one or more wavelengths long
CIt must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
DIts overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

Figure E5-1

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-1