US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
B	Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
C	Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
D	Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits

2. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
B	The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
C	The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
D	Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft

3. - E1B07

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

Select	Answer
A	Homeowners associations
B	State and local zoning
C	Use of wireless devices in vehicles
D	FAA tower height limits

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Select	Answer
A	Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
B	Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
C	Messages intended for users of the maritime satellite service
D	All these choices are correct

5. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
B	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
D	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

6. - E1E01

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
B	Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
C	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
D	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

7. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B	When transmitting international third-party communications
C	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
D	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency

8. - E2A04

What is meant by the term mode? as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
B	The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
C	Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
D	Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit

9. - E2B08

What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70 cm band?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
B	Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
C	Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
D	Using converted satellite TV dishes

10. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

Select	Answer
A	Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
B	Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
C	Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
D	Contacts using tactical call signs

11. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
B	Storing and forwarding digital messages
C	High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
D	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon

12. - E2E05

Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK
B	RTTY
C	PACTOR
D	PSK31

13. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the moon is at apogee
B	When the moon is full
C	When the MUF is above 30 MHz
D	When the moon is at perigee

14. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation between points located on the magnetic equator
B	Propagation between points at the same latitude
C	Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
D	Propagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point

15. - E3C15

What might be indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

Select	Answer
A	Long-path propagation is likely
B	A temperature inversion has occurred
C	A solar flare has occurred
D	Increased transequatorial propagation is likely

16. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Logic analyzer
B	Bit error rate tester
C	Network analyzer
D	Modulation monitor

17. - E4B08

Which of the following can be used to measure the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency shift
B	The inductance to capacitance ratio
C	The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
D	The resonant frequency of the circuit

18. - E4C04

What is the noise figure of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
B	The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
C	The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
D	The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise

19. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Quieting
B	Cross-modulation interference
C	Squelch gain rollback
D	Desensitization

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
B	FM signals can no longer be demodulated
C	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
D	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

21. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	3.56 MHz
B	1.78 MHz
C	44.72 MHz
D	22.36 MHz

22. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and current are in phase
B	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

23. - E5C12

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 8
B	Point 1
C	Point 3
D	Point 7

24. - E5D11

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 60-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.5
B	1.73
C	1.414
D	0.866

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

Select	Answer
A	They are both high impedance
B	An FET has higher input impedance
C	They are both low impedance
D	An FET has lower input impedance

26. - E6B03

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward bias
B	Zero bias
C	Reverse bias
D	Inductive bias

27. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
B	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
C	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
D	A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift

28. - E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Select	Answer
A	Increased conductivity in the presence of light
B	Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
C	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
D	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage

29. - E6E12

Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Too many pins
B	Excessive lead length
C	Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals
D	Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz

30. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

Select	Answer
A	The tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light
B	The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
C	The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
D	The conversion of light to electrical energy

31. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	8
C	2
D	1

32. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low input impedance
B	High power gain
C	Low bandwidth
D	High filament voltage

33. - E7C03

What advantage does a series-L Pi-L-network have over a series-L Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Does not require a capacitor
B	Higher efficiency
C	Greater harmonic suppression
D	Greater transformation range

34. - E7D02

What is a characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
B	It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
C	The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
D	It gives a ramp voltage at its output

35. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A balanced modulator on the oscillator
B	A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
C	A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
D	A reactance modulator on the oscillator

36. - E7F04

What is a common method of generating an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

Select	Answer
A	Varying quartz crystal characteristics emulated in digital form
B	A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
C	Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
D	Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship

37. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	100 ohms
C	Very high
D	1000 ohms

38. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
B	Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
C	Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
D	Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter

39. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The degree of carrier suppression
B	Amplifier gain
C	The frequency of the modulating signal
D	Speech characteristics

40. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
B	A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
C	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
D	A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions

41. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
B	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
C	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
D	Special binary codes provide automatic correction

42. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	Limits data speed
B	The generation of key clicks
C	More difficult to copy
D	The generation of RF harmonics

43. - E9A03

What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The specific impedance of the antenna
B	The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
C	The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
D	The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

44. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

Select	Answer
A	50 degrees
B	25 degrees
C	30 degrees
D	75 degrees

45. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

Select	Answer
A	The low-angle radiation decreases
B	The low-angle radiation increases
C	Additional higher vertical angle lobes will appear
D	Fewer vertical angle lobes will be present

46. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the transmitter as possible
B	As low as possible on the vertical radiator
C	At a voltage node
D	Near the center of the vertical radiator

47. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
B	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
C	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
D	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

48. - E9F05

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	5.3 meters
B	4.3 meters
C	3.5 meters
D	10.6 meters

49. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio circles
B	Radiation-pattern circles
C	Coaxial-length circles
D	Antenna-length circles

50. - E9H04

What is an advantage of placing a grounded electrostatic shield around a small loop direction-finding antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the surroundings, improving the nulls
B	It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line
C	It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna
D	It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

Figure E5-1

Figure E9-1