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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BE field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
CThe body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
DGround reflections and scattering make the field strength vary with location

2. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
BThe control operators of all the stations in the system
CThe control operator of the packet bulletin board station
DThe control operator of the originating station

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

SelectAnswer
AAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
BA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
CA letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
DA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

4. - E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

SelectAnswer
A3 minutes
B30 seconds
C10 minutes
D5 minutes

5. - E1D05

What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

SelectAnswer
AA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
BAll these choices are correct
CA photocopy of the station license
DA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee

6. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

SelectAnswer
AThey must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
BThey must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
CThey must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
DThey must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

7. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

SelectAnswer
ACommunications in a language other than English
BCommunications that have religious content
CCommunications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
DCommunications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

8. - E2A08

Why should effective radiated power to a satellite that uses a linear transponder be limited?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
BTo avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
CTo prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
DTo avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users

9. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
ABy scanning each field from bottom to top
BBy scanning two fields simultaneously
CBy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
DBy scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

10. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

SelectAnswer
AIn the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
BIn the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
CIn the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
DAt the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

11. - E2D10

How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

SelectAnswer
AAn APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
BAn APRS station with a Global Positioning System unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
CAll these choices are correct
DAPRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points

12. - E2E03

How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?

SelectAnswer
AAlternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals
BBy exchanging ACK/NAK packets
CStations take turns on alternate days
DIt depends on the lunar phase

13. - E3A06

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

SelectAnswer
AWait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
BSwitch to a lower frequency HF band
CSwitch to a higher frequency HF band
DWait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band

14. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
AAfternoon or early evening
BMorning
CLate at night
DNoon

15. - E3C01

What does the radio communication term "ray tracing" describe?

SelectAnswer
AEvaluating high voltage sources for x-rays
BDetermining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
CModeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
DThe process in which an electronic display presents a pattern

16. - E4A09

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

SelectAnswer
ANever use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
BAll these choices are correct
CNever use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
DKeep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible

17. - E4B10

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
BModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
CModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
DModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter

18. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver's local oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AIt can affect the receiver's frequency calibration
BIt can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
CIt limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
DIt decreases receiver third-order intercept point

19. - E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

SelectAnswer
ASpurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
BCross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
COscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
DOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

20. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

SelectAnswer
ASignals that have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
BSignals that appear across a wide bandwidth
CSignals that appear at one IF but not another
DSignals that are constant at all IF levels

21. - E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AMaximum
BMinimum
CR/L
DL/R

22. - E5B02

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AY
BG
CX
DB

23. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
ABy real and imaginary parts
BBy Y and G values
CBy phase angle and magnitude
DBy X and R values

24. - E5D11

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 60-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A1.414
B1.73
C0.5
D0.866

25. - E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

SelectAnswer
AThe breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
BThe switching speed
CThe change in collector current with respect to base current
DThe frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AA sub-harmonic pump signal
BReverse voltage larger than the RF signal
CCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
DForward DC bias current

27. - E6C08

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

SelectAnswer
A1
B4
C3
D2

28. - E6D01

Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?

SelectAnswer
ATemporary changes of the core permeability could result
BMagnetic flux would increase with frequency
CHarmonics and distortion could result
DRF susceptance would increase

29. - E6E01

Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AHigher electron mobility
BLower junction voltage drop
CHigher noise figures
DLower transconductance

30. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

SelectAnswer
ASilicon
BCopper oxide
CCadmium Sulfide
DSelenium

31. - E7A01

Which circuit is bistable?

SelectAnswer
AA flip-flop
BA bipolar amplifier
CAn OR gate
DAn AND gate

32. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

SelectAnswer
ALoad resistors
BSelf bias
CVoltage divider bias
DFeedback

33. - E7C09

What is a crystal lattice filter?

SelectAnswer
AAn audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
BA power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
CA filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
DA filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals

34. - E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide fixed DC bias for Q1
BIt bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
CTo self-resonate at the hum frequency
DIt is a brute force filter for the output

35. - E7E10

How does a diode envelope detector function?

SelectAnswer
ABy sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
BBy breakdown of the Zener voltage
CBy rectification and filtering of RF signals
DBy mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

36. - E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

SelectAnswer
ADouble-precision math routines
BMore taps
CComplex phasor representations
DHigher data rate

37. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

SelectAnswer
A14
B0.07
C28
D7

38. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

SelectAnswer
AComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
BWide-band AF and RF power amplification
CFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation
DPhotovoltaic conversion, optical coupling

39. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

SelectAnswer
AImmunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
BAll these choices are correct
CVery high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
DVery low power consumption decreases frequency drift

40. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.6
B1.67
C0.167
D60

41. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

SelectAnswer
ASpecial polynomial codes provide automatic correction
BIf errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
CSpecial binary codes provide automatic correction
DIf errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

42. - E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

SelectAnswer
AIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
BThe receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
CSignals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
DThe high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

43. - E9A01

What is an isotropic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
BA theoretical, omnidirectional antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
CA grounded antenna used to measure Earth conductivity
DA horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas

44. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
AAzimuth
BRadiation resistance
CPolarization
DElevation

45. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
A72 ohms
B50 ohms
C450 ohms
D300 ohms

46. - E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

SelectAnswer
A3 dB
B4 dB
C2 dB
D6 dB

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A62 ohms
B50 ohms
C75 ohms
D450 ohms

48. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a foam polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A5.2 meters
B8.3 meters
C10.4 meters
D6.9 meters

49. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage circles and current arcs
BResistance lines and reactance chords
CResistance circles and reactance arcs
DVoltage lines and current chords

50. - E9H11

What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AA very sharp single null
BA very sharp peak
CHigh radiation angle
DBroadband response

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-2

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-2