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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

SelectAnswer
AZinc oxide
BUranium Hexafluoride
CBeryllium Oxide
DMica

2. - E1A12

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

SelectAnswer
AThey are not permitted above 54 MHz
BThey are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
CNone; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
DThey are restricted to phone band segments

3. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
BThe amateur station must cease operation
CThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
DThe amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

4. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

SelectAnswer
AThe internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
BAn international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
CAn indication of increased antenna reflected power
DA forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

5. - E1D04

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

SelectAnswer
AThe station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
BThe output power of the balloon transmitter
CAll these choices are correct
DCall sign

6. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

SelectAnswer
AThey must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
BThey must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
CThey must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
DThey must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

7. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

SelectAnswer
AWhen transmitting international third-party communications
BWhen the total money involved does not exceed $25
CWhen the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
DWhen neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

8. - E2A02

Which of the following occurs when a satellite is using an inverting linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BUpper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa
CDoppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
DSignal position in the band is reversed

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

SelectAnswer
ATo lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
BTo provide vertical synchronization
CTo identify the call sign of the station transmitting
DTo identify the SSTV mode being used

10. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

SelectAnswer
AIn the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
BIn the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
CAt the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
DIn the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency

11. - E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

SelectAnswer
A802.11
BAX.25
CPACTOR
DAMTOR

12. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

SelectAnswer
A300 baud
B110 baud
C48 baud
D1200 baud

13. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe jet stream
BDust devil
CWind shear
DTemperature inversion

14. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
A2500 miles
B5000 miles
C7500 miles
D1000 miles

15. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

SelectAnswer
AClass A
BClass M
CClass X
DClass B

16. - E4A05

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
AIt prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
BIt divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
CIt amplifies low-level signals for more accurate counting
DIt multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AShort circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
B50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
C50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
DShort circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms

18. - E4C02

Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

SelectAnswer
AA front-end filter or pre-selector
BA properly adjusted product detector
CA notch filter
DA narrow IF filter

19. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

SelectAnswer
ASignals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
BA pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
CA pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
DThe receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

20. - E4E04

How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

SelectAnswer
ABy installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and a blocking capacitor in the field lead
BBy installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
CBy connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
DBy installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads

21. - E5A02

What is resonance in an LC or RLC circuit?

SelectAnswer
AThe highest frequency that will pass current
BThe frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
CThe frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
DThe lowest frequency that will pass current

22. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AThe magnetic impedance of a circuit
BThe ratio of magnetic field to electric field
CThe imaginary part of admittance
DA measure of the efficiency of a transformer

23. - E5C03

Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
AA negative phase angle
BA positive phase angle
CA negative magnitude
DA positive magnitude

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

SelectAnswer
APower lost because of capacitor leakage
BPower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
CWattless, nonproductive power
DPower consumed in circuit Q

25. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

SelectAnswer
AAn FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
BAn FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
CAny FET without a channel
DAny FET for which holes are the majority carriers

26. - E6B09

What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

SelectAnswer
AAs a high-voltage rectifier
BAs a constant current source
CAs a constant voltage source
DAs an RF detector

27. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

SelectAnswer
ATo cause the output to change states continually
BTo prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
CTo increase the sensitivity
DTo allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals

28. - E6D01

Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?

SelectAnswer
ATemporary changes of the core permeability could result
BMagnetic flux would increase with frequency
CHarmonics and distortion could result
DRF susceptance would increase

29. - E6E04

Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

SelectAnswer
A300 ohms
B50 ohms
C10 ohms
D450 ohms

30. - E6F07

What is a solid-state relay?

SelectAnswer
AA semiconductor passive delay line
BA relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
CA mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
DA device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay

31. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

SelectAnswer
AJ-K flip-flop
BAstable multivibrator
CMonostable multivibrator
DT flip-flop

32. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?

SelectAnswer
APush-pull
BClass AB
CClass C
DPush-push

33. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

SelectAnswer
AThe gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
BThe amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
CThe DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
DThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals

34. - E7D11

What is the function of the pass transistor in a linear voltage regulator circuit?

SelectAnswer
AProvides a stable input impedance over a wide range of source voltage
BMaintains nearly constant output voltage over a wide range of load current
CPermits a wide range of output voltage settings
DMaintains nearly constant output impedance over a wide range of load current

35. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AA pre-emphasis network
BA heterodyne suppressor
CA de-emphasis network
DA heterodyne enhancer

36. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

SelectAnswer
AIncoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
BA switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
CSoftware is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
DIncoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

SelectAnswer
AA reduction in high frequency response
BUndesired oscillations added to the desired signal
CAn echo caused by a long time delay
DPartial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

38. - E7H02

What is a microphonic?

SelectAnswer
AChanges in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
BAn IC used for amplifying microphone signals
CDistortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
DExcess loading of the microphone by an oscillator

39. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?

SelectAnswer
ADifferential analysis
BFourier analysis
CNumerical analysis
DVector analysis

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
BThe ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
CThe ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
DThe type of modulation used by the transmitter

41. - E8C06

What is the bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

SelectAnswer
A0.1 Hz
B0.5 kHz
C1.0 kHz
D0.3 kHz

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

SelectAnswer
AHigh-pass filters at the transmitter output
BLow-pass filters at the transmitter output
CIncrease keying waveform rise and fall times
DReduce keying waveform rise and fall times

43. - E9A08

What is antenna bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna length divided by the number of elements
BThe frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
CThe angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
DThe angle between the half-power radiation points

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A25 degrees
B7.5 degrees
C75 degrees
D45 degrees

45. - E9C09

Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
BA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
CA multi-band trap antenna
DA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with aÿ4:1 balun

46. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

SelectAnswer
ASWR bandwidth increases
BGain is reduced
CSWR bandwidth decreases
DMore common-mode current is present on the feed line

47. - E9E07

What parameter describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

SelectAnswer
ADielectric constant
BCharacteristic impedance
CVelocity factor
DReflection coefficient

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A13.3 meters
B7.0 meters
C8.5 meters
D10.6 meters

49. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AReassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
BReassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
CReassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
DReassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

SelectAnswer
ATo increase receiver sensitivity
BTo narrow the receiver bandwidth
CTo compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
DTo prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls

Figure E9-2