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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

SelectAnswer
AReduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
BReduce received noise
CReduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
DLightning protection

2. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operator of the originating station
BThe control operator of the packet bulletin board station
CThe control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
DThe control operators of all the stations in the system

3. - E1B07

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

SelectAnswer
AHomeowners associations
BFAA tower height limits
CUse of wireless devices in vehicles
DState and local zoning

4. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

SelectAnswer
AOnly when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
BWhen approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
CWhen agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
DNever

5. - E1D01

What is the definition of telemetry?

SelectAnswer
ATwo-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
BOne-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
COne-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
DTwo-way transmissions of data

6. - E1E01

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

SelectAnswer
APreparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
BProviding amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
CNo expenses are authorized for reimbursement
DTeaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course

7. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

SelectAnswer
AA line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the U.S. and Canada
BA line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline
CA line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
DA line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the U.S. and Mexico

8. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

SelectAnswer
AFrom east to west
BFrom south to north
CFrom west to east
DFrom north to south

9. - E2B12

What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

SelectAnswer
ASpecific tone frequencies
BSpecific tone amplitudes
CElapsed time
DA two-tone signal

10. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

SelectAnswer
AThe most common set of contest rules
BThe rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
CA standard for submission of electronic contest logs
DA method of exchanging information during a contest QSO

11. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

SelectAnswer
AJT65
BPACTOR III
CMSK144
DOlivia

12. - E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

SelectAnswer
APACTOR
BPSK31
CRTTY
DMT63

13. - E3A12

What is the cause of auroral activity?

SelectAnswer
AThe interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
BMeteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
CAn extreme low-pressure area in the polar regions
DThe interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

14. - E3B04

What is meant by the terms "extraordinary" and "ordinary" waves?

SelectAnswer
ALong-path and short-path waves
BIndependent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
CRefracted rays and reflected waves
DExtraordinary waves describe rare long-skip propagation compared to ordinary waves, which travel shorter distances

15. - E3C12

How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

SelectAnswer
AIt decreases
BIt stays the same
CIt peaks at roughly 14 MHz
DIt increases

16. - E4A11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
ALoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
BConnect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
CConnect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
DLoosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AShort circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
B50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
CShort circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
D50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms

18. - E4C03

What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
ACross-modulation interference
BFrequency discrimination
CCapture effect
DDesensitization

19. - E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AOscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
BOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
CCross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
DSpurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

SelectAnswer
AThe audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
BReceived audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
CNearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
DFM signals can no longer be demodulated

21. - E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AMaximum
BL/R
CMinimum
DR/L

22. - E5B02

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AX
BY
CB
DG

23. - E5C11

Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 1
BPoint 3
CPoint 8
DPoint 7

24. - E5D07

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

SelectAnswer
A355 W
B704 W
C252 W
D1.42 mW

25. - E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

SelectAnswer
AThe switching speed
BThe frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
CThe breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
DThe change in collector current with respect to base current

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AA sub-harmonic pump signal
BCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
CReverse voltage larger than the RF signal
DForward DC bias current

27. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

SelectAnswer
AA logic circuit that can be modified during use
BProgrammable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
CA programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
DA type of transistor whose gain can be changed by digital logic circuits

28. - E6D05

What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered iron in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AFerrite toroids generally have lower initial permeability
BFerrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
CFerrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
DFerrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value

29. - E6E10

What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

SelectAnswer
ASmaller circuit area
BComponents have less parasitic inductance and capacitance
CShorter circuit-board traces
DAll these choices are correct

30. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
A1.5 V
B0.5 V
C12 V
D0.1 V

31. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

SelectAnswer
AIt switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
BIt stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
CIt produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
DIt maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

32. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIncreased overall intelligibility
BSignal distortion and excessive bandwidth
CSignal inversion
DReduced intermodulation products

33. - E7C10

Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter band repeater duplexer?

SelectAnswer
AA cavity filter
BA crystal filter
CAn L-C filter
DA DSP filter

34. - E7D10

What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

SelectAnswer
AThe inverter design does not require any output filtering
BThe high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
CIt uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to recover power from the unused portion of the AC cycle
DIt uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

35. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
A1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
BTwo and four times the original frequency
CThe square root of the product of input frequencies
DThe two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies

36. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation?

SelectAnswer
AConverting data to binary code decimal form
BAttenuating the signal
CReducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
DRemoving unnecessary significant digits

37. - E7G04

What is meant by the "op-amp input offset voltage"?

SelectAnswer
AThe differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
BThe difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
CThe potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
DThe output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

38. - E7H08

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

SelectAnswer
ANP0 capacitors
BToroidal inductors
CNon-inductive resistors
DWirewound resistors

39. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AFourier analysis
BVector analysis
CDifferential analysis
DNumerical analysis

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
BThe ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
CThe type of modulation used by the transmitter
DThe ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency

41. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
ABaud is only used for RTTY
BSymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
CBaud is twice the symbol rate
DThey are the same

42. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

SelectAnswer
AIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
BA binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
CIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
DThe frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a pseudorandom sequence also used by the receiving station

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
BAntenna height
CTransmission line length
DThe input power level

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A25 degrees
B75 degrees
C7.5 degrees
D45 degrees

45. - E9C09

Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
BA multi-band trap antenna
CA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
DA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with aÿ4:1 balun

46. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AImproved radiation efficiency
BGreater structural strength
CLower Q
DHigher losses

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A50 ohms
B450 ohms
C62 ohms
D75 ohms

48. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AVery high impedance
BVery low impedance
CThe same as the generator output impedance
DThe same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

49. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

SelectAnswer
AStanding wave ratio circles
BAntenna-length circles
CRadiation-pattern circles
DCoaxial-length circles

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a bidirectional pattern
BIt is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
CAll these choices are correct
DIt has no clearly defined null

Figure E5-1

Figure E9-2