US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
B	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
C	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
D	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
D	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC

3. - E1C02

What is meant by automatic control of a station?

Select	Answer
A	A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
B	The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
C	The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
D	Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
B	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
C	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
D	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

Select	Answer
A	Each administering VE
B	The VE session manager
C	The VEC coordinating the session
D	The FCC

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
B	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
C	Communications in a language other than English
D	Communications that have a religious content

7. - E2A12

What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

Select	Answer
A	By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
B	By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
C	By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
D	By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

8. - E2B16

Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

Select	Answer
A	DRM
B	NTSC
C	PAL
D	Scottie

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	No additional indicator is required
B	/R# where # is the district of the remote station
C	The ARRL section of the remote station
D	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located

10. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
B	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
C	High speed CW identification to avoid fading
D	Storing and forwarding digital messages

11. - E2E13

Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?

Select	Answer
A	Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
B	The protocol version you are using is not the supported by the digital station
C	Your transmit frequency is incorrect
D	All of these choices are correct

12. - E3A12

What is the cause of auroral activity?

Select	Answer
A	The interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
B	The interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
C	A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
D	Meteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes

13. - E3B04

What is meant by the terms extraordinary and ordinary waves?

Select	Answer
A	Independent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
B	Extraordinary waves describe rare long skip propagation compared to ordinary waves which travel shorter distances
C	Refracted rays and reflected waves
D	Long path and short path waves

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class B
C	Class M
D	Class X

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
C	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
D	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

16. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	The port or ports at which measurements are made
B	The relative time between measurements
C	Relative quality of the data
D	Frequency order of the measurements

17. - E4C12

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Output-offset overshoot
B	Undesired signals may be heard
C	Thermal-noise distortion
D	Filter ringing

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Quieting
B	Cross-modulation interference
C	Desensitization
D	Squelch gain rollback

19. - E4E14

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

Select	Answer
A	A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
B	A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
C	The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
D	A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

20. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	22.36 MHz
B	1.78 MHz
C	44.72 MHz
D	3.56 MHz

21. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
B	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C	Voltage and current are in phase
D	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

22. - E5C07

What is a vector?

Select	Answer
A	A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component
B	The inverse of the tangent function
C	The inverse of the sine function
D	The value of a quantity that changes over time

23. - E5D05

Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?

Select	Answer
A	Malleability
B	Permeability
C	Inductance
D	Permittivity

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
B	Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
C	Common Mode Oscillating System
D	Common Mode Organic Silicon

25. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

Select	Answer
A	As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
B	As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C	As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
D	As balanced mixers in FM generation

26. - E6C12

What is BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	A FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
B	A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
C	A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
D	An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

27. - E6D11

How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

Select	Answer
A	2 turns
B	229 turns
C	43 turns
D	4 turns

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Virtual lead mounting
B	Surface mount
C	Stripped lead
D	Direct soldering

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Cadmium Sulfide
B	Silicon
C	Selenium
D	Copper oxide

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Assertive Logic
B	Reverse Logic
C	Positive Logic
D	Negative logic

31. - E7B15

What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Neutralization
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Select transistors with high beta
D	Use a resistor in series with the emitter

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a band-pass filter
B	It is a high-pass filter
C	It is a notch filter
D	It is a low-pass filter

33. - E7D11

What circuit element is controlled by a series analog voltage regulator to maintain a constant output voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Switching inductance
B	Error amplifier
C	Reference voltage
D	Pass transistor

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce impulse noise reception
B	To remove third-order distortion products
C	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
D	For higher efficiency

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Processor latency
B	Sample width in bits
C	Sample rate
D	Sample clock phase noise

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
B	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
C	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
D	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

37. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

Select	Answer
A	The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
B	The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
C	The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
D	The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform

38. - E8A13

Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic regeneration
B	Level shifting
C	Sequential sampling
D	Phase reversal

39. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B	It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
C	It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
D	It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
B	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
C	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
D	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

41. - E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

Select	Answer
A	Ground loops
B	Bit errors in the modem
C	Excessive numbers of retries
D	Excessive transmit audio levels

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
C	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	SWR vs frequency charts
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
D	Antenna gain

44. - E9C05

What is an OCFD antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
B	A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity
C	A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
D	An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	SWR bandwidth decreases
B	Gain is reduced
C	SWR bandwidth increases
D	More common-mode current is present on the feed line

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Dielectric constant
B	Reflection coefficient
C	Velocity factor
D	Characteristic impedance

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very high impedance
B	Very low impedance
C	The same as the input impedance to the generator
D	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

48. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
B	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
C	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
D	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It has a bidirectional pattern
B	It is non-rotatable
C	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
D	It receives equally well in all directions

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
B	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
C	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
D	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits