US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Any FCC-issued amateur license
C	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
D	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
B	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
C	The amateur station must cease operation
D	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Select	Answer
A	Under local control there is no control operator
B	Under automatic control there is no control operator
C	Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
D	Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

4. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
B	Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Any amateur station designated by NASA

5. - E1E14

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
B	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
C	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
D	Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license

6. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
B	It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
C	It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
D	It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

7. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A circularly polarized antenna
C	A log-periodic dipole array
D	A linearly polarized antenna

8. - E2B02

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

Select	Answer
A	60
B	525
C	1080
D	30

9. - E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

Select	Answer
A	30 m
B	6 m
C	2 m
D	33 cm

10. - E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Node hopping
B	Store-and-forward
C	Multi-satellite relaying
D	Digipeating

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Local
B	Remote
C	Automatic
D	ALE can use any type of control

12. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

Select	Answer
A	Mountain ranges
B	Urban areas
C	Forests
D	Bodies of water

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Any time
B	Early evening
C	Around sunrise
D	Around sunset

14. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

Select	Answer
A	Geomagnetic field stability
B	Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
C	Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
D	Duration of long-delayed echoes

15. - E4A05

What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	Manipulation of time base after trace capture
B	Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout
C	Storage of traces for future reference
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B03

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	165.2 Hz
B	1.4652 MHz
C	14.652 kHz
D	146.52 Hz

17. - E4C12

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Thermal-noise distortion
B	Undesired signals may be heard
C	Output-offset overshoot
D	Filter ringing

18. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To increase rejection of unwanted signals
B	To provide a range of AGC time constants
C	To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
D	To store often-used frequencies

19. - E4E13

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Select	Answer
A	A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
D	Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum
B	Minimum
C	L/R
D	R/L

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance
B	It is unchanged
C	The sign is reversed
D	It is shifted by 90 degrees

22. - E5C14

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 5
B	Point 6
C	Point 2
D	Point 4

23. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

Select	Answer
A	To maintain component lifetime
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To increase the thermal time constant
D	To avoid unwanted inductive reactance

24. - E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
B	The switching speed of the transistor
C	The change in collector current with respect to base current
D	The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

25. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
B	Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
C	Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
D	A large region of intrinsic material

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	High speed operation
B	Low power consumption
C	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
D	More efficient arithmetic operations

27. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a slug core in a variable inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Polystyrene and polyethylene
B	Teflon and Delrin
C	Cobalt and aluminum
D	Ferrite and brass

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Stripped lead
B	Direct soldering
C	Surface mount
D	Virtual lead mounting

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	A crystalline semiconductor
B	A liquid semiconductor
C	A heavy metal
D	An ordinary metal

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	An "OR" gate
C	A clock
D	An "AND" gate

31. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even order harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Push-pull
B	Class AB
C	Class C
D	Push-push

32. - E7C12

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

Select	Answer
A	A network with only three discrete parts
B	A Phase Inverter Load network
C	A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
D	A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output

33. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
B	To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
C	To allow for remote control of the power supply
D	To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
B	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
C	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
D	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals

35. - E7F07

What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?

Select	Answer
A	Converting analog signals to digital form
B	Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
C	Converting digital signals to analog form
D	Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
B	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
C	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
D	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero

37. - E7H12

Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Select	Answer
A	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
B	Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
C	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
D	Bias the crystal at a specified current

38. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Fourier analysis
B	Numerical analysis
C	Differential analysis
D	Vector analysis

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
B	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
C	A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
D	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
B	Baud is twice the symbol rate
C	They are the same
D	Baud is only used for RTTY

41. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	Limits data speed
B	The generation of key clicks
C	The generation of RF harmonics
D	More difficult to copy

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
B	To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
C	To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
D	To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

43. - E9B02

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

Select	Answer
A	24 dB
B	36 dB
C	14 dB
D	18 dB

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
B	Cardioid
C	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D	Omni-directional

45. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the transmitter as possible
B	Near the center of the vertical radiator
C	As low as possible on the vertical radiator
D	At a voltage node

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The stub match
B	The epsilon match
C	The delta match
D	The gamma match

47. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	A capacitive reactance
D	An inductive reactance

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Radiation resistance
B	Impedance along transmission lines
C	Antenna radiation pattern
D	Radio propagation

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It receives equally well in all directions
B	It is non-rotatable
C	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
D	It has a bidirectional pattern

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

Select	Answer
A	Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
B	Only with a carbon monoxide detector
C	By the yellowish appearance of the gas
D	By the odor

Figure E5-2

Figure E9-1