US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A07

Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	17 meter band
B	12 meter band
C	30 meter band
D	60 meter band

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
B	Specific local government channels
C	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
D	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Select	Answer
A	Under automatic control there is no control operator
B	Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
C	Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
D	Under local control there is no control operator

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
B	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
D	A sentence of up to one year in prison

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz

7. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

Select	Answer
A	The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
B	The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
C	FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
D	Which sideband to use

8. - E2B16

Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

Select	Answer
A	NTSC
B	DRM
C	Scottie
D	PAL

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	/R# where # is the district of the remote station
B	No additional indicator is required
C	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
D	The ARRL section of the remote station

10. - E2D04

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	To delay download of telemetry between satellites
B	To relay messages between satellites
C	To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
D	To upload operational software for the transponder

11. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Error Correction
B	Fatal Error Correction
C	Final Error Correction
D	First Error Correction

12. - E3A13

Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	SSB
C	CW
D	RTTY

13. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
B	Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
C	Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
D	Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

14. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

Select	Answer
A	Higher levels of solar UV radiation
B	Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
C	Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
D	An increase in the critical frequency

15. - E4A11

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Select	Answer
A	Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
D	Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

16. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

Select	Answer
A	There is more power going into the antenna
B	The transmitter is not properly neutralized
C	There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
D	There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line

17. - E4C04

How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
B	The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
C	The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
D	The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise

18. - E4D14

Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
B	Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
C	Increase the receiver front end gain
D	Raise the receiver IF frequency

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	Broadband white noise
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Ignition noise
D	Power line noise

20. - E5A02

What is resonance in an electrical circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency that will pass current
B	The highest frequency that will pass current
C	The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
D	The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	The sign is reversed
C	It is shifted by 90 degrees
D	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 3
B	Point 7
C	Point 1
D	Point 8

23. - E5D18

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

Select	Answer
A	252 W
B	704 W
C	355 W
D	1.42 mW

24. - E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
B	To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
C	To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
D	To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating

25. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
B	A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
C	A negative resistance region
D	A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

Select	Answer
A	To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
B	To increase the sensitivity
C	To cause the output to change states continually
D	To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

27. - E6D08

What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability
B	Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance
C	Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same inductance
D	Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

Select	Answer
A	Surface mount
B	Radial lead
C	TO-220
D	Axial lead

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes unstable
B	It decreases
C	It increases
D	It stays the same

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
B	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B01

For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Select	Answer
A	Exactly 180 degrees
B	More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
C	Less than 180 degrees
D	The entire cycle

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
B	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals
C	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
D	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals

33. - E7D02

What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
B	The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
C	It gives a ramp voltage at its output
D	It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator

34. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
B	A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
C	A balanced modulator on the oscillator
D	A reactance modulator on the oscillator

35. - E7F16

How might the sampling rate of an existing digital signal be adjusted by a factor of 3/4?

Select	Answer
A	Change the gain by a factor of 3/4
B	Multiply each sample value by a factor of 3/4
C	Add 3 to each input value and subtract 4 from each output value
D	Interpolate by a factor of three, then decimate by a factor of four

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
B	A reduction in high frequency response
C	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
D	An echo caused by a long time delay

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
B	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
C	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
D	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

Select	Answer
A	Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
D	Improve accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	1.67
B	0.167
C	0.6
D	60

40. - E8C05

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 104 Hz
B	Approximately 13 Hz
C	Approximately 52 Hz
D	Approximately 26 Hz

41. - E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Select	Answer
A	Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
B	The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
C	The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
D	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

42. - E9A14

What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
B	The specific impedance of the antenna
C	The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
D	The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna

43. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	7.5 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	25 degrees
D	75 degrees

44. - E9C05

What is an OCFD antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
B	An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters
C	A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
D	A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	Gain is reduced
B	SWR bandwidth increases
C	SWR bandwidth decreases
D	More common-mode current is present on the feed line

46. - E9E09

Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Double-bazooka match
B	Hairpin match
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Gamma match

47. - E9F14

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Very low impedance
C	Very high impedance
D	The same as the output impedance of the generator

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Points with constant resistance
B	Points with constant reactance
C	SWR
D	Frequency

49. - E9H04

What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
B	It automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations
C	It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
D	It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
B	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
C	Signal Amplification Rating
D	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

Figure E5-2

Figure E9-2