US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
B	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
C	Any FCC-issued amateur license
D	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

2. - E1B02

Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

Select	Answer
A	The location is near an area of political conflict
B	The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
C	The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
D	The location is in an ITU Zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
B	A control operator must be present at the control point
C	A control operator need not be present at the control point
D	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	All except Technician Class
B	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
C	Any class with appropriate operator privileges
D	Only Amateur Extra Class

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In a question pool maintained by the FCC
B	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
C	In FCC Part 97
D	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
B	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
C	All privileges of the Extra Class license
D	None, they must obtain a U.S. license

7. - E2A08

Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
B	To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
C	To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
D	To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

8. - E2B17

What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?

Select	Answer
A	6 MHz
B	3 kHz
C	600 Hz
D	2 MHz

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	/R# where # is the district of the remote station
B	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
C	The ARRL section of the remote station
D	No additional indicator is required

10. - E2D13

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

Select	Answer
A	PSK
B	Multi-tone AFSK
C	RTTY
D	IEEE 802.11

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Select	Answer
A	Selective fading has occurred
B	One of the signal filters is saturated
C	The mark and space signal have been inverted
D	The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

12. - E3A16

Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Select	Answer
A	Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
B	The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
C	Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
D	The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Late at night
B	Noon
C	Morning
D	Afternoon or early evening

14. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately twice the distance
B	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
C	By approximately 15 percent of the distance
D	By approximately four times the distance

15. - E4A15

What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

Select	Answer
A	It can run on battery power for remote measurements
B	It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
C	It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
D	It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period

16. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	Relative quality of the data
B	The port or ports at which measurements are made
C	The relative time between measurements
D	Frequency order of the measurements

17. - E4C16

Which of the following is caused by missing codes in an SDR receiver's analog-to-digital converter?

Select	Answer
A	Excess output level
B	Distortion
C	Loss of sensitivity
D	Overload

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
B	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
C	A Class D final amplifier
D	A Class C final amplifier

19. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Select	Answer
A	Signals which appear at one IF but not another
B	Signals which are constant at all IF levels
C	Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
D	Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth

20. - E5A06

What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	It is at a maximum
B	It is at a minimum
C	It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
D	It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency, multiplied by inductance

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	G
B	X
C	B
D	Y

22. - E5C09

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of the reactive and resistive components
B	The difference between the resistive and reactive components
C	Resistive component
D	Reactive component

23. - E5D01

What is the result of skin effect?

Select	Answer
A	As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
B	As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
C	Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
D	Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance

24. - E6A15

Which semiconductor material contains excess holes in the outer shell of electrons?

Select	Answer
A	P-type
B	N-type
C	Superconductor-type
D	Bipolar-type

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	Forward DC bias current
B	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
C	A sub-harmonic pump signal
D	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the sensitivity
B	To cause the output to change states continually
C	To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
D	To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Thermal impedance
B	Resistance
C	Permeability
D	Reactivity

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Stripped lead
B	Virtual lead mounting
C	Surface mount
D	Direct soldering

29. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
B	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
C	An LED and a phototransistor
D	A lens and a photomultiplier

30. - E7A07

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Feedback
B	Self bias
C	Fixed bias
D	Load resistors

32. - E7C09

What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?

Select	Answer
A	A special filter that emphasizes image responses
B	A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
C	An automatic notch filter
D	A filter that removes impulse noise E7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter

33. - E7D12

What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
B	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
C	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
D	Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
B	For higher efficiency
C	To remove third-order distortion products
D	To reduce impulse noise reception

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	Inactive and Quiescent
B	Instantaneous and Quenched
C	In-phase and Quadrature
D	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable

36. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

Select	Answer
A	2.3 volts
B	-2.3 volts
C	0.23 volts
D	-0.23 volts

37. - E7H12

Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Select	Answer
A	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
B	Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
C	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
D	Bias the crystal at a specified current

38. - E8A12

What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Select	Answer
A	Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
B	Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error

39. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

Select	Answer
A	It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
B	It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
C	It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
D	It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
B	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
C	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
D	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
B	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
C	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
D	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code

42. - E9A17

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	632 watts
B	63.2 watts
C	252 watts
D	159 watts

43. - E9B02

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	14 dB
C	24 dB
D	36 dB

44. - E9C04

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

Select	Answer
A	The front-to-back ratio decreases
B	The vertical angle increases
C	The lobes become more perpendicular to the wire
D	The lobes align more in the direction of the wire

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	More common-mode current is present on the feed line
B	SWR bandwidth increases
C	SWR bandwidth decreases
D	Gain is reduced

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Reflection coefficient
B	Characteristic impedance
C	Velocity factor
D	Dielectric constant

47. - E9F16

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Foam dielectric has higher velocity factor
C	Foam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length
D	Foam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
B	Smith chart
C	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
D	Free space radiation directivity chart

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
B	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
C	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
D	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Beryllium Oxide
B	Zinc oxide
C	Mica
D	Uranium Hexafluoride

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-1

Figure E9-3