US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Any FCC-issued amateur license
C	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
D	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

2. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

Select	Answer
A	A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
B	An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
C	An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
D	Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station

3. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
C	Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
D	When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

4. - E1D01

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Select	Answer
A	Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
B	Two-way single channel transmissions of data
C	One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
D	One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument

5. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Select	Answer
A	Employees of the VE
B	Friends of the VE
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules

6. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
B	The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

7. - E2A14

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	APRS
B	Doppler shift of beacon signals
C	Radar
D	Bandwidth compressed LORAN

8. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

Select	Answer
A	A special front end limiter
B	A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
C	A special IF converter
D	No other hardware is needed

9. - E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

Select	Answer
A	6 m
B	33 cm
C	2 m
D	30 m

10. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

Select	Answer
A	15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
B	Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
C	Use of high speed CW or digital modes
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	48 baud
C	110 baud
D	300 baud

12. - E3A15

What is an electromagnetic wave?

Select	Answer
A	A wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles to each other
B	A wave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
C	A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
D	A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	2500 miles
B	7500 miles
C	1000 miles
D	5000 miles

14. - E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	Downward bending due to aurora refraction
B	E-region skip
C	Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
D	D-region skip

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Bit error rate tester
B	Network analyzer
C	Logic analyzer
D	Modulation monitor

16. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is not properly neutralized
B	There is more power going into the antenna
C	There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
D	There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum detectable spectrum
B	The minimum discernible signal
C	The meter display sensitivity
D	The multiplex distortion stability

18. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
B	To provide a range of AGC time constants
C	To store often-used frequencies
D	To increase rejection of unwanted signals

19. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
B	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
C	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
D	FM signals can no longer be demodulated

20. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
B	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
C	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
D	Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance

21. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
B	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
C	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D	Voltage and current are in phase

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

Select	Answer
A	The tangent and cotangent values
B	The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
C	The sine and cosine values
D	The magnitude and phase of the point

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In the same direction as the current
B	In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
C	In a direction opposite to the current
D	In all directions; omni-directional

24. - E6A16

What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Select	Answer
A	Free neutrons
B	Free protons
C	Free electrons
D	Holes

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a constant current source
B	As an RF switch
C	As a high voltage rectifier
D	As a constant voltage source

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

Select	Answer
A	To cause the output to change states continually
B	To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
C	To increase the sensitivity
D	To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

27. - E6D14

Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered-iron
B	Brass
C	Ceramic
D	Ferrite

28. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon dioxide
B	Silicon nitride
C	Gallium nitride
D	Silicon

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It stays the same
C	It becomes unstable
D	It decreases

30. - E7A07

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Load resistors
B	Fixed bias
C	Feedback
D	Self bias

32. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
B	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
C	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
D	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

33. - E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	It provides D1 with current
B	It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
C	It provides a constant load for the voltage source
D	It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator

34. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A heterodyne suppressor
B	A pre-emphasis network
C	A de-emphasis network
D	An audio prescaler

35. - E7F15

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
C	FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
D	FIR filters delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	76
B	0.03
C	38
D	1

37. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
B	Nyquist limit noise
C	Broadband noise
D	Digital conversion noise

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the modulating signal
B	The amplifier gain
C	The degree of carrier suppression
D	The characteristics of the modulating signal

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	High speed digital modes
B	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
C	EME
D	Extremely low-power contacts

40. - E8C10

What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits

Select	Answer
A	It increases security
B	It facilitates error detection
C	It has more possible states than simple binary
D	It has more resolution than simple binary

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
B	Signal to noise ratio
C	Baud rate
D	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It is essentially unaffected
B	It increases geometrically
C	It increases arithmetically
D	It decreases

43. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	14 dB
C	12 dB
D	24 dB

44. - E9C13

What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
B	It reduces low-angle radiation
C	It causes increased SWR
D	It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

45. - E9D10

What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
B	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
C	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
D	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases

46. - E9E11

What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Select	Answer
A	Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
B	Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
C	Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
D	Use the universal stub matching technique

47. - E9F04

What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

Select	Answer
A	2.70
B	0.10
C	0.66
D	0.30

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Points with constant reactance
B	Frequency
C	Points with constant resistance
D	SWR

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A large circularly polarized antenna
B	A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
C	A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
D	One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil

50. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

Select	Answer
A	Polyethylene
B	Polychlorinated Biphenyls
C	Polytetrafluroethylene
D	Polymorphic silicon

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-3

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-1