US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A02

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	300 Hz above the lower band edge
B	The exact lower band edge
C	1 kHz above the lower band edge
D	3 kHz above the lower band edge

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
B	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
C	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
D	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society

3. - E1C02

What is meant by automatic control of a station?

Select	Answer
A	The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
B	Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
C	The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
D	A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

4. - E1D01

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Select	Answer
A	One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
B	One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
C	Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
D	Two-way single channel transmissions of data

5. - E1E14

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
B	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
C	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
D	Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license

6. - E1F10

What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

Select	Answer
A	1.5 kW
B	1.5 W
C	10 W
D	1 W

7. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	FM and CW
C	SSB and SSTV
D	PSK and Packet

8. - E2B15

What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Select	Answer
A	A two-tone signal
B	Specific tone amplitudes
C	Specific tone frequencies
D	Elapsed time

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
B	To relay calls to and from a DX station
C	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
D	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

10. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledgement
B	Connect
C	Disconnect
D	Unnumbered Information

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	Hellschreiber
C	PACTOR
D	AMTOR

12. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Wind shear
B	Dust devil
C	Temperature inversion
D	The jet stream

13. - E3B10

What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

Select	Answer
A	At mid-afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
B	In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
C	At midday, the Sun super heats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
D	At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption is low while E-layer and F-layer propagation remains high

14. - E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	D-region skip
B	Downward bending due to aurora refraction
C	E-region skip
D	Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

15. - E4A04

What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the interface of the interface circuit
B	Amount of memory on the soundcard
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard

16. - E4B08

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Low reluctance input
B	High impedance input
C	High reluctance input
D	Low impedance input

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
B	It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
C	It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
D	It reduces receiver sensitivity

18. - E4D02

Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
B	Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
C	Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
D	Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals

19. - E4E14

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

Select	Answer
A	A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
B	The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
C	A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
D	A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

20. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Parasitic effects are minimized
B	Phase shift can become uncontrolled
C	Fewer components are needed for the same performance
D	Internal voltages and circulating currents increase

21. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
B	Voltage and current are in phase
C	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

22. - E5C01

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

Select	Answer
A	-jX
B	X
C	+jX
D	Omega

23. - E5D11

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	0.5
C	1.73
D	0.866

24. - E6A10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	2
C	4
D	6

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	CMOS-field effect
B	Thermionic emission diode
C	Electrolytic rectifier
D	Metal-semiconductor junction

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
B	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
C	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
D	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false

27. - E6D05

What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered-iron in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
B	Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
C	Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
D	Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeability

28. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

Select	Answer
A	SOT
B	DIP
C	PLCC
D	Ball grid array

29. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	A lens and a photomultiplier
B	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
C	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
D	An LED and a phototransistor

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Assertive Logic
B	Reverse Logic
C	Negative logic
D	Positive Logic

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter bypass
B	Self bias
C	Output load resistor
D	Fixed bias

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
B	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
C	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
D	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals

33. - E7D11

What circuit element is controlled by a series analog voltage regulator to maintain a constant output voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Pass transistor
B	Switching inductance
C	Error amplifier
D	Reference voltage

34. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer blanking occurs
B	Spurious mixer products are generated
C	A beat frequency is generated
D	Automatic limiting occurs

35. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters?

Select	Answer
A	Removing unnecessary significant digits
B	Attenuating the signal
C	Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
D	Converting data to binary code decimal form

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It does not vary with frequency
B	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
C	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
D	It increases linearly with increasing frequency

37. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce and Zener
B	Colpitts and Hartley
C	Armstrong and deForest
D	Negative feedback and balanced feedback

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the modulating signal
B	The degree of carrier suppression
C	The amplifier gain
D	The characteristics of the modulating signal

39. - E8B10

What describes frequency division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
B	Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
C	Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
D	The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 kHz
B	1.0 kHz
C	0.3 kHz
D	0.1 Hz

41. - E8D09

What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	+15 dB
B	+10 dB
C	-20 dB
D	-30 dB

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
C	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

Select	Answer
A	50 degrees
B	75 degrees
C	30 degrees
D	25 degrees

44. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
B	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
C	Cardioid
D	Omni-directional

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
B	The front-to-back ratio decreases
C	The SWR is reduced
D	The front-to-back ratio increases

46. - E9E01

What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

Select	Answer
A	The stub matching system
B	The delta matching system
C	The omega matching system
D	The gamma matching system

47. - E9F07

How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Lower loss
B	Higher SWR
C	Smaller reflection coefficient
D	Lower velocity factor

48. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

Select	Answer
A	The resistance axis
B	The voltage axis
C	The current axis
D	The reactance axis

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It should be one or more wavelengths long
B	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
C	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
D	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

50. - E0A03

Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
B	All of the choices are correct
C	Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
D	Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-1

Figure E9-3