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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operators of all the stations in the system
BThe control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
CThe control operator of the originating station
DThe control operator of the packet bulletin board station

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 43 dB below
BAt least 53 dB below
CAt least 73 dB below
DAt least 63 dB below

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

SelectAnswer
AAn indication of increased antenna reflected power
BThe internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
CA forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
DAn international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas

4. - E1D04

What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

SelectAnswer
AAn amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
BAny amateur station on the surface of the Earth
CAn amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
DAn amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

SelectAnswer
AEach administering VE
BThe VE session manager
CThe FCC
DThe VEC coordinating the session

6. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
BIt must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
CIt must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
DIt must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

7. - E2A12

What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

SelectAnswer
ABy means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
BBy adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
CBy calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
DBy subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

8. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
ABy scanning two fields simultaneously
BBy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
CBy scanning each field from bottom to top
DBy scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

SelectAnswer
ABecause the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
BTo improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
CTo separate the calling stations from the DX station
DAll of these choices are correct

10. - E2D14

What is one advantage of using JT65 coding?

SelectAnswer
APermits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
BThe ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
CEasily copied by ear if necessary
DUses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

11. - E2E13

Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?

SelectAnswer
AYour transmit frequency is incorrect
BAll of these choices are correct
CAnother station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
DThe protocol version you are using is not the supported by the digital station

12. - E3A14

From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

SelectAnswer
AWest
BNorth
CSouth
DEast

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
ANoon
BAfternoon or early evening
CLate at night
DMorning

14. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
BUV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
CThe solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels
DThe solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
BAll of these choices are correct
CAntenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
DAntenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

16. - E4B14

What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

SelectAnswer
ACross modulation occurs
BIntermodulation distortion occurs
CA less accurate reading results
DHarmonics are generated

17. - E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

SelectAnswer
A2400 Hz
B100 Hz
C300 Hz
D6000 Hz

18. - E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AThe difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
BThe difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
CThe minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
DThe minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other

19. - E4E08

What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

SelectAnswer
AAn electrical-sparking signal
BA common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
CHarmonics of the AC power line frequency
DA differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

SelectAnswer
ALow, as compared to the circuit resistance
BApproximately equal to circuit resistance
CApproximately equal to capacitive reactance
DApproximately equal to inductive reactance

21. - E5B01

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

SelectAnswer
AA time factor of one
BOne time constant
CAn exponential rate of one
DOne exponential period

22. - E5C04

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
AA positive real part
BA negative real part
CA negative phase angle
DA positive phase angle

23. - E5D11

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A1.73
B0.5
C1.414
D0.866

24. - E6A11

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

SelectAnswer
A6
B1
C2
D3

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

SelectAnswer
A1
B6
C7
D5

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

SelectAnswer
ALow power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
BLogic devices that utilize ternary math
CLogic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
DProprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

27. - E6D07

What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

SelectAnswer
AFrom about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
BFrom less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
CFrom approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
DFrom a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
ARadial lead
BAxial lead
CSurface mount
DTO-220

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

SelectAnswer
AA heavy metal
BAn ordinary metal
CA liquid semiconductor
DA crystalline semiconductor

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

SelectAnswer
AReverse Logic
BAssertive Logic
CPositive Logic
DNegative logic

31. - E7B01

For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

SelectAnswer
AExactly 180 degrees
BMore than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
CLess than 180 degrees
DThe entire cycle

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

SelectAnswer
APi-L
BPi
COmega
DCascode

33. - E7D02

What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
BIt is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
CThe controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
DIt gives a ramp voltage at its output

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce impulse noise reception
BTo remove third-order distortion products
CFor higher efficiency
DFor compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation

35. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

SelectAnswer
AAt the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
BAt four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
CAt twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
DAt half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

36. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A0.23 volts
B2.3 volts
C-0.23 volts
D-2.3 volts

37. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

SelectAnswer
ABroadband noise
BDigital conversion noise
CSpurious signals at discrete frequencies
DNyquist limit noise

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

SelectAnswer
AImprove accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input
BAll of these choices are correct
CRemove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
DLower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution

39. - E8B10

What describes frequency division multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
BTwo or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
CThe transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
DThe transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
ABaud is twice the symbol rate
BSymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
CBaud is only used for RTTY
DThey are the same

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

SelectAnswer
ABaud rate
BSignal to noise ratio
CIntermodulation Distortion (IMD)
DRepeat Request Rate (RRR)

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
BTo measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
CTo calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
DTo match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line

43. - E9B16

How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A1
B3
C7
D4

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA type of ground-plane antenna
BA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
CA dipole configured to provide forward gain
DA dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
BIt might radiate harmonics
CIt must be neutralized
DIt is too sharply directional at lower frequencies

46. - E9E01

What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

SelectAnswer
AThe delta matching system
BThe stub matching system
CThe gamma matching system
DThe omega matching system

47. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A6.9 meters
B10 meters
C50 meters
D24 meters

48. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

SelectAnswer
AThe reactance axis
BThe resistance axis
CThe current axis
DThe voltage axis

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AA very sharp single null
BHigh-radiation angle
CA very sharp peak
DBroad band response

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

SelectAnswer
AGround reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
BThe body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
CE field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
DAll of these choices are correct

Figure E6-2

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3