US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A09

What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
B	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
C	Discontinue forwarding all messages
D	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	30 miles
B	3 miles
C	10 miles
D	1 mile

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
B	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
C	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
D	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
C	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
D	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

5. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Select	Answer
A	Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B	The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
C	The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
D	The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Any licensed amateur operator
B	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

7. - E2A03

What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

Select	Answer
A	The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
B	The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
C	The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
D	The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

8. - E2B04

What is blanking in a video signal?

Select	Answer
A	Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
B	Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
C	Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
D	Transmitting a black and white test pattern

9. - E2C04

What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
B	Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
C	Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
D	Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band

10. - E2D13

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

Select	Answer
A	PSK
B	RTTY
C	IEEE 802.11
D	Multi-tone AFSK

11. - E2E13

Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?

Select	Answer
A	Your transmit frequency is incorrect
B	Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The protocol version you are using is not the supported by the digital station

12. - E3A04

What do Hepburn maps predict?

Select	Answer
A	Likelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts
B	Locations of auroral reflecting zones
C	Probability of tropospheric propagation
D	Sporadic E propagation

13. - E3B09

At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
B	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
D	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice

14. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Horizontal
B	Vertical
C	Circular
D	Elliptical

15. - E4A13

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
B	A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
C	A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
D	A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

16. - E4B02

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It can display results directly in Smith chart format
B	It provides an excellent match under all conditions
C	It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
D	It is very precise in obtaining a signal null

17. - E4C17

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's linearity?

Select	Answer
A	Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
B	RAM speed used for data storage
C	CPU register width in bits
D	Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C final amplifier
B	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
C	A Class D final amplifier
D	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter

19. - E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Select	Answer
A	Meteor showers
B	Solar radio frequency emissions
C	Geomagnetic storms
D	Thunderstorms

20. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
B	High, as compared to the circuit resistance
C	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D	Approximately equal to circuit resistance

21. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
B	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
C	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
D	Voltage and current are in phase

22. - E5C14

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 2
B	Point 4
C	Point 5
D	Point 6

23. - E5D09

What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
B	It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
C	It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
D	It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit

24. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptor impurity
B	Insulator impurity
C	Donor impurity
D	N-type impurity

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	Metal-semiconductor junction
B	Thermionic emission diode
C	Electrolytic rectifier
D	CMOS-field effect

26. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

Select	Answer
A	An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design
B	A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
C	Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
D	A device to control industrial equipment

27. - E6D15

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

Select	Answer
A	Stabilizing current
B	Magnetizing current
C	Excitation current
D	Direct current

28. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon dioxide
B	Silicon
C	Gallium nitride
D	Silicon nitride

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	A crystalline semiconductor
B	A liquid semiconductor
C	A heavy metal
D	An ordinary metal

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	An XOR gate
B	An OR gate
C	A flip-flop
D	A multiplexer

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter bypass
B	Self bias
C	Fixed bias
D	Output load resistor

32. - E7C07

What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

Select	Answer
A	A notch filter
B	An all-pass filter
C	A band-pass filter
D	A Pi-network filter

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It has a ramp voltage as its output
B	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
C	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
D	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	For higher efficiency
B	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
C	To remove third-order distortion products
D	To reduce impulse noise reception

35. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

Select	Answer
A	Provide access for debugging software
B	To reduce excess signal pressure levels
C	Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
D	Select the point at which baseband signals are generated

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
B	An echo caused by a long time delay
C	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
D	A reduction in high frequency response

37. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a capacitive divider
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through a tapped coil
D	Through link coupling

38. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
C	Immunity to out of sequence coding reduces spurious responses
D	Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies

39. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	6000
B	3
C	2000
D	1/3

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	4.8 kHz
B	5.76 kHz
C	9.6 kHz
D	15.36 kHz

41. - E8D09

What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	-20 dB
B	+10 dB
C	+15 dB
D	-30 dB

42. - E9A07

What is meant by antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
B	The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses
C	The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
D	The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna

43. - E9B04

What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Select	Answer
A	The gain may change depending on frequency
B	The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
C	Element spacing limits could be exceeded
D	Feed point impedance may become negative

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
B	Cardioid
C	Omni-directional
D	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
B	The SWR is reduced
C	The front-to-back ratio increases
D	The front-to-back ratio decreases

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR less than 1:1
B	A dielectric constant greater than 1
C	An SWR greater than 1:1
D	A reflection coefficient greater than 1

47. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitive reactance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
D	An inductive reactance

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency
B	SWR
C	Points with constant resistance
D	Points with constant reactance

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
B	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
C	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
D	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Mica
B	Beryllium Oxide
C	Uranium Hexafluoride
D	Zinc oxide

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-1