US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B	The control operators of all the stations in the system
C	The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
D	The control operator of the originating station

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
B	Specific local government channels
C	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
D	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator

3. - E1C11

Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	IARP agreement
B	ITU reciprocal license
C	All of these choices are correct
D	CEPT agreement

4. - E1D07

Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
B	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
C	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
D	All HF bands

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
C	A sentence of up to one year in prison
D	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

6. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
B	It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
C	It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
D	It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

7. - E2A14

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth compressed LORAN
B	APRS
C	Radar
D	Doppler shift of beacon signals

8. - E2B12

How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
B	Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
C	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
D	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband

9. - E2C04

What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
B	Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
C	Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
D	Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band

10. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect
B	Connect
C	Acknowledgement
D	Unnumbered Information

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	110 baud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	48 baud

12. - E3A13

Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	RTTY
C	SSB
D	CW

13. - E3B07

Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

Select	Answer
A	High D layer absorption
B	Meteor scatter
C	Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
D	Receipt of a signal by more than one path

14. - E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

Select	Answer
A	VHF radio propagation
B	AC current and impedance
C	AC voltage and impedance
D	HF propagation

15. - E4A05

What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout
B	Storage of traces for future reference
C	Manipulation of time base after trace capture
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	1.4652 Hz
B	14.652 Hz
C	0.1 MHz
D	1.4652 kHz

17. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	-155 dBm
B	-164 dBm
C	-174 dBm
D	-148 dBm

18. - E4D03

How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

Select	Answer
A	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
B	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
C	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
D	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

19. - E4E13

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Select	Answer
A	A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
D	A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
D	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	The sign is reversed
C	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
D	It is shifted by 90 degrees

22. - E5C04

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	A negative real part
B	A positive phase angle
C	A positive real part
D	A negative phase angle

23. - E5D18

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

Select	Answer
A	1.42 mW
B	252 W
C	355 W
D	704 W

24. - E6A05

What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The change of base current with respect to collector current
B	The change of collector current with respect to base current
C	The change of collector current with respect to gate current
D	The change of collector current with respect to emitter current

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	7
C	6
D	5

26. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

Select	Answer
A	A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
B	An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design
C	Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
D	A device to control industrial equipment

27. - E6D05

What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered-iron in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
B	Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
C	Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeability
D	Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology

28. - E6E12

Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a low-pass frequency response
B	High-voltage insulating ability
C	Better dissipation of heat
D	Enhanced sensitivity to light

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Copper oxide
B	Selenium
C	Silicon
D	Cadmium Sulfide

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
B	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
C	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Select	Answer
A	Fixed bias
B	Emitter bypass
C	Output load resistor
D	Self bias

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a low-pass filter
B	It is a high-pass filter
C	It is a notch filter
D	It is a band-pass filter

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
B	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
C	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
D	It has a ramp voltage as its output

34. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
B	The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
C	Two and four times the original frequency
D	1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

35. - E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

Select	Answer
A	Sample clock phase noise
B	Data storage transfer rate
C	Missing codes and jitter
D	Reference voltage level and sample width in bits

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
B	For smoothing power supply output
C	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
D	As an audio filter in a receiver

37. - E7H08

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	Wirewound resistors
B	Toroidal inductors
C	NP0 capacitors
D	Non-inductive resistors

38. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Differential analysis
B	Fourier analysis
C	Numerical analysis
D	Vector analysis

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.214
B	47
C	0.47
D	2.14

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
B	Baud is only used for RTTY
C	Baud is twice the symbol rate
D	They are the same

41. - E8D06

Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid signal fading
B	Strong ALC action
C	High reflected power
D	Harmonics on higher bands

42. - E9A13

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	12.5 dB
B	14.15 dB
C	9.85 dB
D	6.17 dB

43. - E9B11

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Select	Answer
A	The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
B	The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
C	Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
D	The antenna will become mechanically unstable

44. - E9C04

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

Select	Answer
A	The vertical angle increases
B	The front-to-back ratio decreases
C	The lobes become more perpendicular to the wire
D	The lobes align more in the direction of the wire

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	SWR bandwidth decreases
B	Gain is reduced
C	SWR bandwidth increases
D	More common-mode current is present on the feed line

46. - E9E12

What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
B	It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
C	It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
D	It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern

47. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
B	An inductive reactance
C	A capacitive reactance
D	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

48. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
B	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
D	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
B	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
C	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
D	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
B	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
C	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
D	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-1