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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
B100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
D50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

2. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

SelectAnswer
AYou must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
BYou may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
CNo special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
DYou must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

SelectAnswer
AUnder automatic control there is no control operator
BUnder local control there is no control operator
CUnder automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
DUnder local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

SelectAnswer
AA radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
BA spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
CA radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
DA radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

5. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

SelectAnswer
AThe prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
BThe amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
CThe procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
DEach General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

SelectAnswer
AAny licensed amateur operator
BOnly Amateur Extra Class operators
COnly General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
DOnly Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

7. - E2A10

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

SelectAnswer
ABecause the satellite is spinning
BBecause of ionospheric absorption
CBecause of the satellite's low orbital altitude
DBecause of the Doppler Effect

8. - E2B14

What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

SelectAnswer
ATone amplitude
BTone frequency
CSync frequency
DSync amplitude

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

SelectAnswer
AWait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
BWait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
CSwitch to a higher frequency HF band
DSwitch to a lower frequency HF band

10. - E2D09

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

SelectAnswer
A170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
BAMTOR
CPSK31
D300 baud packet

11. - E2E07

What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

SelectAnswer
A550 Hz
B2.16 kHz
C316 Hz
D31 Hz

12. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
BA slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
CA gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
DA fluttery irregular fading

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
A7500 miles
B2500 miles
C5000 miles
D1000 miles

14. - E3C12

How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

SelectAnswer
AIt stays the same
BIt decreases
CIt increases
DIt peaks at roughly 14 MHz

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA time-domain reflectometer
BA wattmeter
CA spectrum analyzer
DA logic analyzer

16. - E4B17

What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AShort circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
BShort circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
C50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
D50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable

17. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A-155 dBm
B-174 dBm
C-148 dBm
D-164 dBm

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

SelectAnswer
AAdjacent channel interference
BAmplifier desensitization
CIntermodulation interference
DNeutralization

19. - E4E14

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

SelectAnswer
AThe appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
BA clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
CA loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
DA whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

20. - E5A15

Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?

SelectAnswer
ALower reactance
BHigher self-resonant frequency
CLower losses
DLower self-resonant frequency

21. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C04

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
AA negative real part
BA positive real part
CA positive phase angle
DA negative phase angle

23. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A400 watts
B50 watts
C2000 watts
D80 watts

24. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?

SelectAnswer
AIn microwave circuits
BIn high-current rectifier circuits
CIn high-power audio circuits
DIn very low frequency RF circuits

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AReverse voltage larger than the RF signal
BCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
CForward DC bias current
DA sub-harmonic pump signal

26. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

SelectAnswer
AThe feedback loop becomes unstable
BThe comparator changes its output state
CThe comparator enters latch-up
DThe IC input can be damaged

27. - E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AToroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
BToroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
CToroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
DToroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

SelectAnswer
ADirect soldering
BVirtual lead mounting
CStripped lead
DSurface mount

29. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

SelectAnswer
AThe conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
BThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
CThe conversion of light to electrical energy
DThe tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
BIt only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
CIt produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
DIt produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

SelectAnswer
AOutput load resistor
BFixed bias
CEmitter bypass
DSelf bias

32. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

SelectAnswer
AThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals
BThe amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
CThe gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
DThe DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

33. - E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

SelectAnswer
ALinear voltage regulator
BEmitter follower
CSwitching voltage regulator
DGrounded emitter amplifier

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
BBy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
CBy driving a product detector with a DSB signal
DBy using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

35. - E7F07

What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?

SelectAnswer
AConverting digital signals to analog form
BConverting analog signals to digital form
CConverting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
DConverting 8-bit data to 16 bit data

36. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

SelectAnswer
ARestrict both gain and Q
BRestrict gain but increase Q
CIncrease both gain and Q
DRestrict Q but increase gain

37. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

SelectAnswer
AMechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
BUsing the oscillator only for CW and digital signals
CUse of NP0 capacitors
DEliminating noise on the oscillator's power supply

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

SelectAnswer
AA cosine wave
BA square wave
CA sawtooth wave
DA sine wave

39. - E8B01

What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AFM compressibility
BQuieting index
CModulation index
DPercentage of modulation

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

SelectAnswer
ASpecial binary codes provide automatic correction
BSpecial polynomial codes provide automatic correction
CIf errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
DIf errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

41. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

SelectAnswer
AIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
BIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
CA pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
DThe frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

42. - E9A12

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

SelectAnswer
A6.0 dB
B8.15 dB
C2.79 dB
D3.85 dB

43. - E9B02

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

SelectAnswer
A18 dB
B14 dB
C36 dB
D24 dB

44. - E9C15

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
BThe horizontal beam width increases with height
CThe main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
DThe horizontal beam width decreases with height

45. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AImproved radiation efficiency
BGreater structural strength
CLower Q
DHigher losses

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe delta match
BThe stub match
CThe epsilon match
DThe gamma match

47. - E9F08

What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

SelectAnswer
ASurge impedance
BCharacteristic impedance
CVelocity factor
DStanding wave ratio

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AResistance lines and reactance chords
BResistance circles and reactance arcs
CVoltage lines and current chords
DVoltage circles and current arcs

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
BIt reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
CIt narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
DIt prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls

50. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

SelectAnswer
AThe extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
BThe high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
CMicrowaves are ionizing radiation
DMicrowaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-1