US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A07

Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	30 meter band
B	60 meter band
C	12 meter band
D	17 meter band

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

3. - E1C12

What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Select	Answer
A	Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
D	Business-related messages for non-profit organizations

4. - E1D03

What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere
B	An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
C	An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
D	An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

Select	Answer
A	The VEC coordinating the session
B	Each administering VE
C	The FCC
D	The VE session manager

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	All privileges of the Extra Class license
B	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
C	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
D	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges

7. - E2A12

What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

Select	Answer
A	By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
B	By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
C	By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
D	By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

8. - E2B15

What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Select	Answer
A	Elapsed time
B	Specific tone frequencies
C	Specific tone amplitudes
D	A two-tone signal

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
B	To relay calls to and from a DX station
C	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
D	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
B	It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
B	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
C	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
D	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

12. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?

Select	Answer
A	Gray-line
B	Lightning discharges
C	Sprites and jets
D	Warm and cold fronts

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters to 40 meters
B	160 meters to 10 meters
C	6 meters to 2 meters
D	30 meters to 10 meters

14. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

Select	Answer
A	An increase in the critical frequency
B	Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
C	Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
D	Higher levels of solar UV radiation

15. - E4A13

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

Select	Answer
A	A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
B	A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
C	A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
D	A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude

16. - E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

Select	Answer
A	125 watts
B	100 watts
C	75 watts
D	25 watts

17. - E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

Select	Answer
A	100 Hz
B	300 Hz
C	2400 Hz
D	6000 Hz

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
B	A Class C final amplifier
C	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
D	A Class D final amplifier

19. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
B	FM signals can no longer be demodulated
C	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
D	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
B	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
D	Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	440 seconds
B	55 seconds
C	110 seconds
D	220 seconds

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

Select	Answer
A	The tangent and cotangent values
B	The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
C	The sine and cosine values
D	The magnitude and phase of the point

23. - E5D08

What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Select	Answer
A	Electromechanical energy
B	Kinetic energy
C	Thermodynamic energy
D	Potential energy

24. - E6A11

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	2
C	3
D	6

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Junction
B	Point contact
C	Tunnel
D	Zener

26. - E6C13

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
C	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
D	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors

27. - E6D11

How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

Select	Answer
A	43 turns
B	4 turns
C	229 turns
D	2 turns

28. - E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

Select	Answer
A	44 dBm
B	-20 dBm
C	-10 dB
D	2 dB

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It stays the same
C	It decreases
D	It becomes unstable

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"

31. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
B	Increased overall intelligibility
C	Reduced intermodulation products
D	Signal inversion

32. - E7C03

What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a regular Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower losses
B	Higher efficiency
C	Greater transformation range
D	Greater harmonic suppression

33. - E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To boost the amount of output current
B	To balance the low-voltage filament windings
C	To improve output voltage regulation
D	To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply

34. - E7E10

How does a diode detector function?

Select	Answer
A	By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
B	By rectification and filtering of RF signals
C	By breakdown of the Zener voltage
D	By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

35. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

Select	Answer
A	8 bits
B	6 bits
C	10 bits
D	4 bits

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
B	For smoothing power supply output
C	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
D	As an audio filter in a receiver

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A hybrid synthesizer
B	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
C	A phase locked loop synthesizer
D	A direct digital synthesizer

38. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Numerical analysis
B	Fourier analysis
C	Differential analysis
D	Vector analysis

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	2.14
B	0.214
C	47
D	0.47

40. - E8C05

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 52 Hz
B	Approximately 13 Hz
C	Approximately 26 Hz
D	Approximately 104 Hz

41. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
B	Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
C	Low-pass filters at the transmitter output
D	High-pass filters at the transmitter output

42. - E9A17

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	63.2 watts
B	252 watts
C	632 watts
D	159 watts

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	SWR vs frequency charts
B	Antenna gain
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns

44. - E9C04

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

Select	Answer
A	The lobes become more perpendicular to the wire
B	The front-to-back ratio decreases
C	The lobes align more in the direction of the wire
D	The vertical angle increases

45. - E9D01

How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Select	Answer
A	Gain does not change
B	Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C	Gain increases by 6 dB
D	Gain increases by 3 dB

46. - E9E11

What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Select	Answer
A	Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
B	Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
C	Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
D	Use the universal stub matching technique

47. - E9F02

Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The termination impedance
B	The center conductor resistivity
C	Dielectric materials used in the line
D	The line length

48. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and impedance
B	Resistance and voltage
C	Reactance and voltage
D	Resistance and reactance

49. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
B	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
C	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
D	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
B	Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
C	All of these choices are correct
D	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

Figure E6-2