US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B	The control operators of all the stations in the system
C	The control operator of the originating station
D	The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

2. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
B	You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
C	No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
D	You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	A control operator must be present at the control point
B	A control operator need not be present at the control point
C	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
D	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

4. - E1D04

What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
B	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere
C	An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
D	An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed
B	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
C	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
D	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team

6. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

Select	Answer
A	A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border
B	A line roughly parallel to and north of the U.S.-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
C	A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
D	A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline

7. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

Select	Answer
A	FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
B	The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
C	Which sideband to use
D	The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

8. - E2B14

What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

Select	Answer
A	Tone frequency
B	Sync frequency
C	Tone amplitude
D	Sync amplitude

9. - E2C04

What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
B	Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
C	Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
D	Store and forward on the 440 MHz band

10. - E2D13

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

Select	Answer
A	PSK
B	RTTY
C	IEEE 802.11
D	Multi-tone AFSK

11. - E2E13

Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?

Select	Answer
A	Your transmit frequency is incorrect
B	Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
C	The protocol version you are using is not the supported by the digital station
D	All of these choices are correct

12. - E3A12

What is the cause of auroral activity?

Select	Answer
A	Meteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
B	The interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
C	A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
D	The interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	2500 miles
B	7500 miles
C	5000 miles
D	1000 miles

14. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Northward
B	Eastward
C	Westward
D	Southward

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Network analyzer
B	Modulation monitor
C	Logic analyzer
D	Bit error rate tester

16. - E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	125 watts
C	25 watts
D	75 watts

17. - E4C11

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz
B	4.2 kHz
C	4.8 kHz
D	2.4 kHz

18. - E4D13

Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Squelch gain misadjusted
B	Strong adjacent channel signals
C	Audio bias adjusted too high
D	Audio gain adjusted too low

19. - E4E15

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield
B	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
C	Use of braided shielding material
D	Common mode currents on the shield and conductors

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
C	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

21. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	55 seconds
B	440 seconds
C	220 seconds
D	110 seconds

22. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

Select	Answer
A	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
B	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
C	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
D	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance

23. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Wattless, nonproductive power
B	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
C	Power consumed in circuit Q
D	Power lost because of capacitor leakage

24. - E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

Select	Answer
A	P-type
B	Bipolar
C	Insulated gate
D	N-type

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	CMOS-field effect
B	Metal-semiconductor junction
C	Electrolytic rectifier
D	Thermionic emission diode

26. - E6C10

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	4
C	3
D	2

27. - E6D08

What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability
B	Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same inductance
C	Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
D	Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
B	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
C	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
D	MMICs require no operating bias

29. - E6F13

What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?

Select	Answer
A	A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
B	A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
C	A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
D	A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
C	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B09

Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
B	The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
C	The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
D	The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current

32. - E7C09

What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?

Select	Answer
A	A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
B	An automatic notch filter
C	A filter that removes impulse noise E7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter
D	A special filter that emphasizes image responses

33. - E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	It provides a constant load for the voltage source
B	It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
C	It provides D1 with current
D	It provides negative feedback to improve regulation

34. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
B	A balanced modulator on the oscillator
C	A reactance modulator on the oscillator
D	A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier

35. - E7F15

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

Select	Answer
A	FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
B	FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
C	All of these choices are correct
D	FIR filters delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It does not vary with frequency
B	It increases linearly with increasing frequency
C	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
D	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

37. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce, Fenner and Beane
B	Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
C	Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D	Taft, Pierce and negative feedback

38. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

Select	Answer
A	Immunity to out of sequence coding reduces spurious responses
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
D	Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	1.67
B	60
C	0.6
D	0.167

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	15.36 kHz
B	9.6 kHz
C	4.8 kHz
D	5.76 kHz

41. - E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

Select	Answer
A	It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
B	It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
C	It includes built in error correction features
D	It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text

42. - E9A04

Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Sunspot activity and time of day
B	The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
C	Transmission-line length
D	Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
C	Antenna gain
D	SWR vs frequency charts

44. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
B	A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
C	Omni-directional
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	At a voltage node
B	As close to the transmitter as possible
C	Near the center of the vertical radiator
D	As low as possible on the vertical radiator

46. - E9E01

What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

Select	Answer
A	The omega matching system
B	The delta matching system
C	The gamma matching system
D	The stub matching system

47. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	A capacitive reactance
D	An inductive reactance

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Free space radiation directivity chart
B	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
C	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
D	Smith chart

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
B	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
C	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
D	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
C	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
D	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-3