US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A02

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	300 Hz above the lower band edge
B	1 kHz above the lower band edge
C	The exact lower band edge
D	3 kHz above the lower band edge

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	10 miles
B	30 miles
C	1 mile
D	3 miles

3. - E1C10

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only beacon, repeater or space stations
B	Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
C	Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
D	Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

Select	Answer
A	70 cm and 13 cm
B	70 cm only
C	33 cm and 13 cm
D	70 cm and 33 cm

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

Select	Answer
A	Each administering VE
B	The FCC
C	The VE session manager
D	The VEC coordinating the session

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
B	It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
C	It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
D	The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	144 MHz - 146 MHz
B	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
C	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
D	435 MHz - 438 MHz

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.230 MHz
B	1255 MHz
C	52.525 MHz
D	29.6 MHz

9. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

Select	Answer
A	Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
B	Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
C	Contacts using tactical call signs
D	Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.

10. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	APRS
B	FSK441
C	Hellschreiber
D	WSPR

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	48 baud
B	300 baud
C	110 baud
D	1200 baud

12. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

Select	Answer
A	1200 miles
B	100 miles to 300 miles
C	2500 miles
D	10 miles to 50 miles

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters to 40 meters
B	160 meters to 10 meters
C	6 meters to 2 meters
D	30 meters to 10 meters

14. - E3C03

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?

Select	Answer
A	Polar paths
B	Sporadic-E
C	Transequatorial propagation
D	NVIS

15. - E4A11

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Select	Answer
A	Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
B	Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
C	Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B17

What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
B	50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
C	Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
D	50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The minimum discernible signal
B	The maximum detectable spectrum
C	The multiplex distortion stability
D	The meter display sensitivity

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C final amplifier
B	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
C	A Class D final amplifier
D	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver

19. - E4E04

How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

Select	Answer
A	By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
B	By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
C	By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
D	By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and a blocking capacitor in the field lead

20. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer components are needed for the same performance
B	Parasitic effects are minimized
C	Phase shift can become uncontrolled
D	Internal voltages and circulating currents increase

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	Y
C	G
D	B

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 1
B	Point 7
C	Point 3
D	Point 8

23. - E5D05

Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?

Select	Answer
A	Permeability
B	Inductance
C	Permittivity
D	Malleability

24. - E6A14

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

Select	Answer
A	They are both low impedance
B	An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
C	An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
D	They are both high impedance

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	A sub-harmonic pump signal
B	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
C	Forward DC bias current
D	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	2
B	3
C	1
D	4

27. - E6D07

What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

Select	Answer
A	From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
B	From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
C	From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
D	From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
B	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
C	MMICs require no operating bias
D	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead

29. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	A lens and a photomultiplier
B	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
C	An LED and a phototransistor
D	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

30. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

Select	Answer
A	A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
B	A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
C	A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
D	A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp

31. - E7B17

Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
B	Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
C	Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
D	Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion

32. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
B	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
C	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
D	Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

33. - E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
B	It provides D1 with current
C	It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
D	It provides a constant load for the voltage source

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
B	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
C	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
D	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals

35. - E7F03

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	A Hilbert-transform filter
B	An adaptive filter
C	An elliptical filter
D	A notch filter

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
B	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
C	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
D	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition

37. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce and Zener
B	Armstrong and deForest
C	Colpitts and Hartley
D	Negative feedback and balanced feedback

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The degree of carrier suppression
B	The amplifier gain
C	The characteristics of the modulating signal
D	The frequency of the modulating signal

39. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	1000
B	3
C	3000
D	0.3

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

Select	Answer
A	Gray code
B	Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
C	Excess 3 code
D	Binary Coded Decimal Code

41. - E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

Select	Answer
A	It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
B	It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
C	It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
D	It includes built in error correction features

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
B	To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
C	To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
D	To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line

43. - E9B04

What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Select	Answer
A	The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
B	Element spacing limits could be exceeded
C	Feed point impedance may become negative
D	The gain may change depending on frequency

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole configured to provide forward gain
B	A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
C	A type of ground-plane antenna
D	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long

45. - E9D02

How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Select	Answer
A	Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
B	Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
C	Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
D	Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

46. - E9E06

What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system of a 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Pi-L-network
B	A series capacitor
C	Pi-network
D	A shunt inductor

47. - E9F08

What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Select	Answer
A	Characteristic impedance
B	Surge impedance
C	Velocity factor
D	Standing wave ratio

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance along transmission lines
B	Radiation resistance
C	Radio propagation
D	Antenna radiation pattern

49. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
B	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
C	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
D	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
B	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
C	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
D	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-3