US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A03

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
B	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C	No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge
D	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
B	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B	A control operator need not be present at the control point
C	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
D	A control operator must be present at the control point

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
B	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
D	All of these choices are correct

5. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

Select	Answer
A	An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
B	A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
C	A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
D	The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When transmitting international third-party communications
B	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
C	When the total money involved does not exceed $25
D	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency

7. - E2A12

What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

Select	Answer
A	By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
B	By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
C	By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
D	By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

8. - E2B05

Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
B	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
C	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
D	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
B	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
C	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
D	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log

10. - E2D04

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
B	To upload operational software for the transponder
C	To delay download of telemetry between satellites
D	To relay messages between satellites

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	Hellschreiber
C	RTTY
D	PACTOR

12. - E3A06

Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Rain droplets must be within the E layer
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The rain must be within radio range of both stations
D	Rain droplets must be electrically charged

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	2500 miles
B	1000 miles
C	7500 miles
D	5000 miles

14. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	Waning sunspot numbers
B	Very low solar activity
C	Moderate solar wind
D	An extreme geomagnetic storm

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Network analyzer
B	Logic analyzer
C	Modulation monitor
D	Bit error rate tester

16. - E4B14

What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Select	Answer
A	A less accurate reading results
B	Intermodulation distortion occurs
C	Cross modulation occurs
D	Harmonics are generated

17. - E4C09

Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Reduced drift
B	Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
C	Improved receiver noise figure
D	Fewer components in the receiver

18. - E4D11

Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
B	The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
C	The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
D	Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

19. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	FM signals can no longer be demodulated
B	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
C	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
D	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	7.12 MHz
B	7.12 kHz
C	23.5 MHz
D	23.5 kHz

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is shifted by 90 degrees
B	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
C	The sign is reversed
D	It is unchanged

22. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	By X and R values
B	By real and imaginary parts
C	By Y and G values
D	By phase angle and amplitude

23. - E5D07

What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?

Select	Answer
A	The diameter of the conductor
B	The amount of current flowing through the conductor
C	The ratio of the current to the resistance
D	The resistance divided by the current

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	Any FET without a channel
B	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
C	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
D	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

25. - E6B09

What is a common use for point contact diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As an RF detector
B	As a constant voltage source
C	As a constant current source
D	As a high voltage rectifier

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
B	To increase the sensitivity
C	To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
D	To cause the output to change states continually

27. - E6D15

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

Select	Answer
A	Direct current
B	Magnetizing current
C	Stabilizing current
D	Excitation current

28. - E6E04

Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	450 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	10 ohms

29. - E6F01

What is photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
B	The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
C	The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
D	The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy

30. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

Select	Answer
A	It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
B	It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
C	It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
D	It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

31. - E7B15

What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Use a resistor in series with the emitter
B	Neutralization
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Select transistors with high beta

32. - E7C14

Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	Single-Sideband voice
B	Video
C	Meteor scatter
D	Digital

33. - E7D04

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

Select	Answer
A	A series regulator
B	A shunt current source
C	A series current source
D	A shunt regulator

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	For higher efficiency
B	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
C	To remove third-order distortion products
D	To reduce impulse noise reception

35. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

Select	Answer
A	4 bits
B	6 bits
C	10 bits
D	8 bits

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
B	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
C	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
D	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

37. - E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

Select	Answer
A	Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Use a GPS signal reference
D	Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator

38. - E8A12

What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Select	Answer
A	Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
B	Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
C	Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
D	All of these choices are correct

39. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	6000
B	1/3
C	3
D	2000

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	9.6 kHz
B	5.76 kHz
C	4.8 kHz
D	15.36 kHz

41. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	The generation of key clicks
B	Limits data speed
C	The generation of RF harmonics
D	More difficult to copy

42. - E9A15

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	420 watts
B	78.7 watts
C	1977 watts
D	286 watts

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
C	SWR vs frequency charts
D	Antenna gain

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
B	A multi-band trap antenna
C	A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
D	A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line

45. - E9D10

What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
B	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
C	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
D	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
B	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
C	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
D	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network

47. - E9F14

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the output impedance of the generator
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Very high impedance
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
B	Free space radiation directivity chart
C	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
D	Smith chart

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
B	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
C	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
D	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity

50. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
B	Lightning protection
C	Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
D	Reduce received noise

Figure E9-3