US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A02

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz above the lower band edge
B	3 kHz above the lower band edge
C	300 Hz above the lower band edge
D	The exact lower band edge

2. - E1B07

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	3.0
B	2.0
C	1.0
D	0.5

3. - E1C11

Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	ITU reciprocal license
B	IARP agreement
C	CEPT agreement
D	All of these choices are correct

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
B	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
D	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
B	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
C	All these choices are correct
D	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
B	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
C	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
D	All privileges of the Extra Class license

7. - E2A08

Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
B	To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
C	To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
D	To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

8. - E2B02

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

Select	Answer
A	30
B	525
C	1080
D	60

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
B	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
C	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
D	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable

10. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect
B	Acknowledgement
C	Connect
D	Unnumbered Information

11. - E2E01

Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Spread spectrum
C	FSK
D	DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

12. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	A fluttery irregular fading
B	The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
C	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
D	A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises

13. - E3B14

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	Their polarization is randomly modified
B	They become elliptically polarized
C	They are bent toward the magnetic poles
D	They become phase-locked

14. - E3C09

How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

Select	Answer
A	Four times as great
B	50 percent greater
C	Twice as great
D	10 percent greater

15. - E4A05

What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Storage of traces for future reference
C	Manipulation of time base after trace capture
D	Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	1.4652 Hz
B	14.652 Hz
C	1.4652 kHz
D	0.1 MHz

17. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

Select	Answer
A	13.845 MHz
B	14.755 MHz
C	14.445 MHz
D	15.210 MHz

18. - E4D07

Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
B	A large increase in background noise
C	The desired signal can no longer be heard
D	A reduction in apparent signal strength

19. - E4E04

How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

Select	Answer
A	By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and a blocking capacitor in the field lead
B	By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
C	By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
D	By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads

20. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

Select	Answer
A	23.67 kHz
B	157.8 Hz
C	315.6 Hz
D	47.3 kHz

21. - E5B02

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

Select	Answer
A	A discharge factor of one
B	An exponential discharge rate of one
C	One discharge period
D	One time constant

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 8
B	Point 7
C	Point 1
D	Point 3

23. - E5D05

Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?

Select	Answer
A	Malleability
B	Inductance
C	Permittivity
D	Permeability

24. - E6A15

Which semiconductor material contains excess holes in the outer shell of electrons?

Select	Answer
A	P-type
B	N-type
C	Superconductor-type
D	Bipolar-type

25. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
B	Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
C	A large region of intrinsic material
D	Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

26. - E6C13

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
B	It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS

27. - E6D15

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

Select	Answer
A	Excitation current
B	Direct current
C	Stabilizing current
D	Magnetizing current

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

Select	Answer
A	Axial lead
B	Surface mount
C	Radial lead
D	TO-220

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	A heavy metal
B	A crystalline semiconductor
C	An ordinary metal
D	A liquid semiconductor

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
B	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Select	Answer
A	Self bias
B	Emitter bypass
C	Fixed bias
D	Output load resistor

32. - E7C13

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output
B	The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
C	L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
D	Pi-networks have fewer components

33. - E7D12

What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
B	Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
C	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
D	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation

34. - E7E10

How does a diode detector function?

Select	Answer
A	By breakdown of the Zener voltage
B	By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
C	By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
D	By rectification and filtering of RF signals

35. - E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

Select	Answer
A	Higher data rate
B	More taps
C	Double-precision math routines
D	Complex phasor representations

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It increases linearly with increasing frequency
B	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
C	It does not vary with frequency
D	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

37. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Select	Answer
A	Negative feedback and balanced feedback
B	Armstrong and deForest
C	Colpitts and Hartley
D	Pierce and Zener

38. - E8A13

Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase reversal
B	Harmonic regeneration
C	Sequential sampling
D	Level shifting

39. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	0.3
C	1000
D	3000

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
B	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
C	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
D	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
B	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
C	Signal to noise ratio
D	Baud rate

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
C	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
B	All of these choices are correct
C	SWR vs frequency charts
D	Antenna gain

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
C	Cardioid
D	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

Select	Answer
A	To maximize losses
B	To swamp out harmonics
C	To minimize the Q
D	To minimize losses

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The stub match
B	The gamma match
C	The epsilon match
D	The delta match

47. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
B	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
C	The index of shielding for coaxial cable
D	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance

48. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

Select	Answer
A	The resistance axis
B	The current axis
C	The reactance axis
D	The voltage axis

49. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
C	They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
D	Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
B	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
C	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
D	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-3