US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-issued amateur license
B	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
C	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
D	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

2. - E1B05

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

Select	Answer
A	An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
B	An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
C	An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
D	An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

3. - E1C11

Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	CEPT agreement
B	IARP agreement
C	All of these choices are correct
D	ITU reciprocal license

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
B	All except Technician Class
C	Only Amateur Extra Class
D	Any class with appropriate operator privileges

5. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

Select	Answer
A	A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
B	An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
C	A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
D	The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any licensed amateur operator

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	435 MHz - 438 MHz
B	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
C	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
D	144 MHz - 146 MHz

8. - E2B02

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

Select	Answer
A	525
B	1080
C	30
D	60

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Select	Answer
A	Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
B	Switch to a higher frequency HF band
C	Switch to a lower frequency HF band
D	Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass

10. - E2D09

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
B	300 baud packet
C	PSK31
D	AMTOR

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
B	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
C	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
D	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	220 MHz - 450 MHz
B	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
C	28 MHz - 148 MHz
D	10 MHz - 14 MHz

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Noon
B	Morning
C	Late at night
D	Afternoon or early evening

14. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately twice the distance
B	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
C	By approximately four times the distance
D	By approximately 15 percent of the distance

15. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing in a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
B	False triggering occurs
C	False signals are displayed
D	All signals will have a DC offset

16. - E4B13

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S21
B	S22
C	S11
D	S12

17. - E4C11

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

Select	Answer
A	4.2 kHz
B	2.4 kHz
C	4.8 kHz
D	1 kHz

18. - E4D11

Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
B	The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
C	Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
D	Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

19. - E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Select	Answer
A	Meteor showers
B	Solar radio frequency emissions
C	Geomagnetic storms
D	Thunderstorms

20. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B	High, as compared to the circuit resistance
C	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

21. - E5B01

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

Select	Answer
A	A time factor of one
B	One time constant
C	An exponential rate of one
D	One exponential period

22. - E5C12

If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
B	It contains resistance and inductive reactance
C	It has to be a direct current circuit
D	It is equivalent to a pure resistance

23. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Power consumed in circuit Q
B	Power lost because of capacitor leakage
C	Wattless, nonproductive power
D	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
B	Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
C	Common Mode Oscillating System
D	Common Mode Organic Silicon

25. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive inverse voltage
B	Charge carrier depletion
C	Insufficient forward voltage
D	Excessive junction temperature

26. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
B	Input signals are stronger
C	Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
D	The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage

27. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The skin effect
B	Non-linear core hysteresis
C	Inductive kickback
D	Inter-turn capacitance

28. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
B	The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
C	Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
D	Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.5 V
B	0.1 V
C	0.5 V
D	12 V

30. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

Select	Answer
A	A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
B	A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
C	A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
D	A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp

31. - E7B12

What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Select	Answer
A	Common emitter
B	Emitter follower
C	Common collector
D	Common base

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
B	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals
C	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
D	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals

33. - E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To improve output voltage regulation
B	To boost the amount of output current
C	To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
D	To balance the low-voltage filament windings

34. - E7E07

What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
B	The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
C	The frequency components present in the modulating signal
D	The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers

35. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

Select	Answer
A	Provide access for debugging software
B	Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
C	Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
D	To reduce excess signal pressure levels

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
B	An echo caused by a long time delay
C	A reduction in high frequency response
D	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

37. - E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a tapped coil
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through a capacitive divider
D	Through link coupling

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A sawtooth wave
B	A square wave
C	A cosine wave
D	A sine wave

39. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	3000
B	0.3
C	1000
D	3

40. - E8C03

When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It improves carrier suppression
C	It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous detector
D	This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the particular mode

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
B	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
C	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
D	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

42. - E9A10

Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorten the radiating element
B	Install a good radial system
C	Isolate the coax shield from ground
D	Reduce the diameter of the radiating element

43. - E9B11

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Select	Answer
A	The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
B	Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
C	The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
D	The antenna will become mechanically unstable

44. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Select	Answer
A	A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
B	A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
C	Omni-directional
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

Select	Answer
A	To maximize losses
B	To minimize the Q
C	To swamp out harmonics
D	To minimize losses

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
B	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
C	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
D	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network

47. - E9F15

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the output impedance of the generator
B	Very high impedance
C	Very low impedance
D	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Smith chart
B	Free space radiation directivity chart
C	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
D	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It should be one or more wavelengths long
B	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
C	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
D	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

Select	Answer
A	Only with a carbon monoxide detector
B	Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
C	By the odor
D	By the yellowish appearance of the gas

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-3