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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A12

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
ANo, one of the sidebands of the CW signal will be out of the band
BYes, the DX station initiated the contact
CYes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
DNo, U.S. stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 53 dB below
BAt least 43 dB below
CAt least 63 dB below
DAt least 73 dB below

3. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

SelectAnswer
AOnly when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
BWhen approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
CWhen agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
DNever

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

SelectAnswer
AThe space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
BThe space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
CAll of these choices are correct
DThe space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

5. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

SelectAnswer
AAn organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
BThe person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
CA person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
DA person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

SelectAnswer
AWhen transmitting international third-party communications
BWhen the total money involved does not exceed $25
CWhen the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
DWhen neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

SelectAnswer
A144 MHz - 146 MHz
B29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
C435 MHz - 438 MHz
D50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz

8. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

SelectAnswer
ANarrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
BAmplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
CSpread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
DA type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

9. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

SelectAnswer
AThe rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
BThe most common set of contest rules
CA standard for submission of electronic contest logs
DA method of exchanging information during a contest QSO

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

SelectAnswer
AIt supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
BIt can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
CIt controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
DAll of these choices are correct

11. - E2E01

Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APulse modulation
BDTMF tones modulating an FM signal
CFSK
DSpread spectrum

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

SelectAnswer
AWhen the Moon is full
BWhen the MUF is above 30 MHz
CWhen the Moon is at perigee
DWhen the Moon is at apogee

13. - E3B13

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

SelectAnswer
ASignals travel faster along ionospheric chords
BAtmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
CThe signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
DThe MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation

14. - E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

SelectAnswer
AHF propagation
BAC current and impedance
CVHF radio propagation
DAC voltage and impedance

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA logic analyzer
BA time-domain reflectometer
CA spectrum analyzer
DA wattmeter

16. - E4B15

Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

SelectAnswer
AThe resonant frequency of the circuit
BThe inductance to capacitance ratio
CThe bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
DThe frequency shift

17. - E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

SelectAnswer
A6000 Hz
B300 Hz
C2400 Hz
D100 Hz

18. - E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AThe difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
BThe minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
CThe minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
DThe difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

19. - E4E10

What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

SelectAnswer
AThe interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
BThe interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
CAll of these choices are correct
DThe interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver

20. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
BThe voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
CThe voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
DThe voltage and current are in phase

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AIt is unchanged
BThe sign is reversed
CIt is shifted by 90 degrees
DThe magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 7
BPoint 8
CPoint 3
DPoint 1

23. - E5D09

What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

SelectAnswer
AIt is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
BIt is dissipated as heat in the circuit
CIt is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
DIt is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

SelectAnswer
ACommon Mode Oscillating System
BComplementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
CCommon Mode Organic Silicon
DComplementary Mica-Oxide Silicon

25. - E6B13

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

SelectAnswer
AForward bias
BZero bias
CInductive bias
DReverse bias

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

SelectAnswer
ATo cause the output to change states continually
BTo increase the sensitivity
CTo allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
DTo prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

27. - E6D11

How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

SelectAnswer
A4 turns
B43 turns
C229 turns
D2 turns

28. - E6E04

Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

SelectAnswer
A10 ohms
B450 ohms
C300 ohms
D50 ohms

29. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
AThe effective payback period
BThe relative fraction of light that is converted to current
CThe output RF power divided by the input DC power
DThe open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
BIt produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
CIt produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
DIt only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

SelectAnswer
AAt a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
BAt a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
CApproximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
DWhere the load line intersects the voltage axis

32. - E7C14

Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

SelectAnswer
ADigital
BMeteor scatter
CVideo
DSingle-Sideband voice

33. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

SelectAnswer
AControl of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
BMatching of day and night charge rates
CPrevention of battery undercharge
DPrevention of battery damage due to overcharge

34. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
ASpurious mixer products are generated
BA beat frequency is generated
CAutomatic limiting occurs
DMixer blanking occurs

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

SelectAnswer
AA crystal-lattice filter
BAn adaptive filter
CA phase-inverting filter
DA Hilbert-transform filter

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

SelectAnswer
AThe difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
BThe output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
CThe differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
DThe potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition

37. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

SelectAnswer
APhotovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
BFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation
CWide-band AF and RF power amplification
DComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter

38. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AA cosine wave
BA square wave
CA sawtooth wave
DA sine wave

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
BTwo or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
CTwo or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
DTwo or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

40. - E8C05

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 13 Hz
BApproximately 52 Hz
CApproximately 104 Hz
DApproximately 26 Hz

41. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

SelectAnswer
AReduce keying waveform rise and fall times
BHigh-pass filters at the transmitter output
CLow-pass filters at the transmitter output
DIncrease keying waveform rise and fall times

42. - E9A16

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

SelectAnswer
A126 watts
B300 watts
C2000 watts
D317 watts

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SelectAnswer
APolar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
BAll of these choices are correct
CAntenna gain
DSWR vs frequency charts

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
BA multi-band trap antenna
CA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
DA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

45. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

SelectAnswer
AA 50 ohm resistor connected to ground
BAn electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
CAn electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
DAn electrically short connection to a metal water pipe

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

SelectAnswer
AVelocity factor
BCharacteristic impedance
CReflection coefficient
DDielectric constant

47. - E9F02

Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

SelectAnswer
AThe termination impedance
BThe center conductor resistivity
CDielectric materials used in the line
DThe line length

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

SelectAnswer
APrime axis
BPolar axis
CImpedance axis
DReactance axis

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AA very sharp single null
BHigh-radiation angle
CA very sharp peak
DBroad band response

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

SelectAnswer
AUranium Hexafluoride
BZinc oxide
CBeryllium Oxide
DMica

Figure E5-2

Figure E9-3