US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A12

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	No, one of the sidebands of the CW signal will be out of the band
B	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz
C	Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
D	Yes, the DX station initiated the contact

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

Select	Answer
A	At least 53 dB below
B	At least 73 dB below
C	At least 43 dB below
D	At least 63 dB below

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
B	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
C	A control operator must be present at the control point
D	A control operator need not be present at the control point

4. - E1D07

Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
B	Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
C	All HF bands
D	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	A sentence of up to one year in prison
B	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
C	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
B	Communications that have a religious content
C	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
D	Communications in a language other than English

7. - E2A08

Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

Select	Answer
A	To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
B	To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
C	To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
D	To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals

8. - E2B05

Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
B	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
C	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
D	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

9. - E2C02

Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting in regards to HF contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
B	The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
C	A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
D	An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

10. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledgement
B	Connect
C	Disconnect
D	Unnumbered Information

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
B	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
C	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
D	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

12. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	A fluttery irregular fading
B	A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
C	The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
D	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	6 meters to 2 meters
B	160 meters to 10 meters
C	30 meters to 10 meters
D	160 meters to 40 meters

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class X
B	Class A
C	Class M
D	Class B

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
C	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
D	Match the antenna to the load

16. - E4B02

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It provides an excellent match under all conditions
B	It can display results directly in Smith chart format
C	It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
D	It is very precise in obtaining a signal null

17. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	-174 dBm
B	-155 dBm
C	-148 dBm
D	-164 dBm

18. - E4D13

Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Strong adjacent channel signals
B	Audio bias adjusted too high
C	Audio gain adjusted too low
D	Squelch gain misadjusted

19. - E4E11

Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

Select	Answer
A	The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
B	You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
C	Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
D	Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

20. - E5A02

What is resonance in an electrical circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
B	The highest frequency that will pass current
C	The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
D	The lowest frequency that will pass current

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
C	It is shifted by 90 degrees
D	The sign is reversed

22. - E5C13

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Elliptical coordinates
B	Faraday grid
C	Maidenhead grid
D	Rectangular coordinates

23. - E5D16

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.5
B	0.577
C	1.73
D	0.866

24. - E6A07

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Select	Answer
A	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
B	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
D	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	Electrolytic rectifier
B	Metal-semiconductor junction
C	CMOS-field effect
D	Thermionic emission diode

26. - E6C12

What is BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
B	A FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
C	A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
D	A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
B	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
C	The inductor windings are over coupled
D	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
B	MMICs require no operating bias
C	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

29. - E6F14

Which of the following is true of LCD displays?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions
C	They may be hard view through polarized lenses
D	They only display alphanumeric symbols

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	An XOR gate
B	A multiplexer
C	A flip-flop
D	An OR gate

31. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal inversion
B	Increased overall intelligibility
C	Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
D	Reduced intermodulation products

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a low-pass filter
B	It is a band-pass filter
C	It is a high-pass filter
D	It is a notch filter

33. - E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	Linear voltage regulator
B	Switching voltage regulator
C	Grounded emitter amplifier
D	Emitter follower

34. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A heterodyne suppressor
B	A pre-emphasis network
C	A de-emphasis network
D	An audio prescaler

35. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

Select	Answer
A	6 bits
B	10 bits
C	4 bits
D	8 bits

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
B	It does not vary with frequency
C	It increases linearly with increasing frequency
D	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

37. - E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

Select	Answer
A	Use a GPS signal reference
B	Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
C	Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
D	All of these choices are correct

38. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	25 to 1
B	2.5 to 1
C	100 to 1
D	1 to 1

39. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

Select	Answer
A	It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
B	It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
C	It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
D	It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

40. - E8C05

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 26 Hz
B	Approximately 13 Hz
C	Approximately 104 Hz
D	Approximately 52 Hz

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
B	Signal to noise ratio
C	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
D	Baud rate

42. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

Select	Answer
A	Distance from the transmitter
B	Soil conductivity
C	The standing wave ratio
D	Take-off angle

43. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	Elevation
B	Azimuth
C	Polarization
D	Radiation resistance

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B	A dipole configured to provide forward gain
C	A type of ground-plane antenna
D	A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

Select	Answer
A	To swamp out harmonics
B	To maximize losses
C	To minimize the Q
D	To minimize losses

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma match
B	The stub match
C	The omega match
D	The delta match

47. - E9F07

How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Lower loss
B	Higher SWR
C	Lower velocity factor
D	Smaller reflection coefficient

48. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Radiation-pattern circles
B	Antenna-length circles
C	Coaxial-length circles
D	Standing wave ratio circles

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
B	It should be one or more wavelengths long
C	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
D	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

50. - E0A03

Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
B	All of the choices are correct
C	Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
D	Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-2