US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A09

What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Discontinue forwarding all messages
B	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
C	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
D	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Specific local government channels
B	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
D	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
B	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
C	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
D	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

4. - E1D01

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Select	Answer
A	One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
B	One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
C	Two-way single channel transmissions of data
D	Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

5. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
B	Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
C	The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
D	The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

6. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

Select	Answer
A	420 MHz - 430 MHz
B	53 MHz - 54 MHz
C	222 MHz - 223 MHz
D	440 MHz - 450 MHz

7. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Select	Answer
A	The location of the ground control station
B	The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
C	Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
D	The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

8. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

Select	Answer
A	By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
B	By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
C	By scanning two fields simultaneously
D	By scanning each field from bottom to top

9. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

Select	Answer
A	The most common set of contest rules
B	A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
C	The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
D	A standard for submission of electronic contest logs

10. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	JT65
B	PACTOR III
C	FSK441
D	Olivia

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	ALE can use any type of control
B	Remote
C	Automatic
D	Local

12. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

Select	Answer
A	2500 miles
B	100 miles to 300 miles
C	1200 miles
D	10 miles to 50 miles

13. - E3B14

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	Their polarization is randomly modified
B	They become phase-locked
C	They are bent toward the magnetic poles
D	They become elliptically polarized

14. - E3C01

What does the term ray tracing describe in regard to radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
B	Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
C	The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern
D	Evaluating high voltage sources for X-Rays

15. - E4A09

When using a computer's soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?

Select	Answer
A	One-tenth the sample rate
B	One-half the sample rate
C	The same as the sample rate
D	It depends on how the data is stored internally

16. - E4B17

What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
B	Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
C	Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
D	50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms

17. - E4C08

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the maximum sampling buffer size
B	The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
C	One-half the maximum sample rate
D	The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter

18. - E4D11

Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
B	Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
C	The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
D	The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band

19. - E4E07

How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

Select	Answer
A	By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
B	By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
C	By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
D	By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope

20. - E5A01

What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance
B	Resonance
C	Conductance
D	Capacitance

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	The sign is reversed
C	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance
D	It is shifted by 90 degrees

22. - E5C17

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 1
B	Point 8
C	Point 5
D	Point 3

23. - E5D15

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.866
B	0.707
C	1.0
D	0.5

24. - E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
B	To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
C	To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
D	To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

25. - E6B13

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward bias
B	Reverse bias
C	Zero bias
D	Inductive bias

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

Select	Answer
A	To cause the output to change states continually
B	To increase the sensitivity
C	To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
D	To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal

27. - E6D17

Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	RF susceptance would increase
B	Harmonics and distortion could result
C	Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
D	Magnetic flux would increase with frequency

28. - E6E12

Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?

Select	Answer
A	Enhanced sensitivity to light
B	High-voltage insulating ability
C	To provide a low-pass frequency response
D	Better dissipation of heat

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes unstable
B	It stays the same
C	It decreases
D	It increases

30. - E7A07

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Select	Answer
A	Collector load
B	Voltage regulation
C	Fixed bias
D	Emitter load

32. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
B	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
C	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
D	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band

33. - E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	Linear voltage regulator
B	Grounded emitter amplifier
C	Switching voltage regulator
D	Emitter follower

34. - E7E07

What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency components present in the modulating signal
B	The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
C	The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
D	The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

35. - E7F12

What digital process is applied to I and Q signals in order to recover the baseband modulation information?

Select	Answer
A	Signal conditioning
B	Decimation
C	Quadrature mixing
D	Fast Fourier Transform

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	76
B	0.03
C	38
D	1

37. - E7H14

What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
B	An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
C	An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
D	An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input

38. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 1
B	2.5 to 1
C	25 to 1
D	100 to 1

39. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	3000
B	0.3
C	3
D	1000

40. - E8C10

What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits

Select	Answer
A	It has more possible states than simple binary
B	It facilitates error detection
C	It increases security
D	It has more resolution than simple binary

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	Faster transmission rate
B	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
C	Foreign language characters can be sent
D	The signal can overpower interfering signals

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It increases arithmetically
B	It is essentially unaffected
C	It increases geometrically
D	It decreases

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

Select	Answer
A	50 degrees
B	75 degrees
C	30 degrees
D	25 degrees

44. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

Select	Answer
A	Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
B	The low-angle radiation decreases
C	The low-angle radiation increases
D	The high-angle radiation increases

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

Select	Answer
A	To swamp out harmonics
B	To minimize the Q
C	To minimize losses
D	To maximize losses

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Reflection coefficient
B	Dielectric constant
C	Characteristic impedance
D	Velocity factor

47. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the generator output impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
C	Very high impedance
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Trigonometric functions
B	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
C	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
D	Beam headings and radiation patterns

49. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
C	Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
D	They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

Select	Answer
A	By the yellowish appearance of the gas
B	Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
C	Only with a carbon monoxide detector
D	By the odor

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-2

Figure E7-3

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-1