US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A09

What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
B	Discontinue forwarding all messages
C	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
D	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
B	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

3. - E1C09

Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
B	24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz
C	29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz
D	10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
C	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team
B	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
C	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
D	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
B	It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
C	It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
D	It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From east to west
B	From north to south
C	From west to east
D	From south to north

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	29.6 MHz
B	14.230 MHz
C	52.525 MHz
D	1255 MHz

9. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
B	At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
C	In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
D	In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency

10. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Storing and forwarding digital messages
B	High speed CW identification to avoid fading
C	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
D	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station

11. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Error Correction
B	First Error Correction
C	Fatal Error Correction
D	Final Error Correction

12. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?

Select	Answer
A	Gray-line
B	Sprites and jets
C	Lightning discharges
D	Warm and cold fronts

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters to 40 meters
B	160 meters to 10 meters
C	6 meters to 2 meters
D	30 meters to 10 meters

14. - E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	D-region skip
B	E-region skip
C	Downward bending due to aurora refraction
D	Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

15. - E4A14

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
B	It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
C	It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
D	It amplifies low level signals for more accurate counting

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Time base accuracy
B	Decade divider accuracy
C	Temperature coefficient of the logic
D	Input attenuator accuracy

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The minimum discernible signal
B	The multiplex distortion stability
C	The maximum detectable spectrum
D	The meter display sensitivity

18. - E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
B	The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
C	The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
D	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

19. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Select	Answer
A	Signals which are constant at all IF levels
B	Signals which appear at one IF but not another
C	Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
D	Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth

20. - E5A15

Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Lower reactance
B	Higher self-resonant frequency
C	Lower self-resonant frequency
D	Lower losses

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of reactance
B	A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
C	The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
D	The magnetic impedance of a circuit

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 7
B	Point 1
C	Point 8
D	Point 3

23. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts
B	400 watts
C	80 watts
D	50 watts

24. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Select	Answer
A	Donor impurity
B	Insulator impurity
C	Acceptor impurity
D	N-type impurity

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a constant current source
B	As an RF switch
C	As a high voltage rectifier
D	As a constant voltage source

26. - E6C13

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
B	It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS

27. - E6D07

What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

Select	Answer
A	From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
B	From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
C	From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
D	From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
B	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
C	MMICs require no operating bias
D	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

29. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

Select	Answer
A	A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
B	A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
C	A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
D	A device which measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An "AND" gate
B	A clock
C	An "OR" gate
D	A flip-flop

31. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High power gain
B	Low input impedance
C	High filament voltage
D	Low bandwidth

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Select	Answer
A	Cascode
B	Pi
C	Pi-L
D	Omega

33. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

Select	Answer
A	Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
B	Prevention of battery undercharge
C	Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge
D	Matching of day and night charge rates

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
B	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
C	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
D	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	A Hilbert-transform filter
B	A crystal-lattice filter
C	A phase-inverting filter
D	An adaptive filter

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As an audio filter in a receiver
B	For smoothing power supply output
C	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
D	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
B	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
C	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
D	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Select	Answer
A	Data
B	Video signals
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Human speech

39. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	1000
B	3000
C	3
D	0.3

40. - E8C04

What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Use of trapezoidal data pulses
B	Use of sinusoidal data pulses
C	Reed-Solomon character encoding
D	Zero-sum character encoding

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	The signal can overpower interfering signals
B	Faster transmission rate
C	Foreign language characters can be sent
D	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent

43. - E9B10

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

Select	Answer
A	A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
B	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
C	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
D	A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator

44. - E9C06

What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
B	It decreases the ground loss
C	It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
D	It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization

45. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
B	A 50 ohm resistor connected to ground
C	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
D	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma match
B	The omega match
C	The delta match
D	The stub match

47. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
B	A capacitive reactance
C	An inductive reactance
D	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

48. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna-length circles
B	Standing wave ratio circles
C	Coaxial-length circles
D	Radiation-pattern circles

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
B	A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
C	One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
D	A large circularly polarized antenna

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
B	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
C	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
D	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

Figure E5-2