US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A14

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

Select	Answer
A	1.5 kHz
B	60 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	2.8 kHz

2. - E1B07

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2.0
B	1.0
C	0.5
D	3.0

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Select	Answer
A	Under local control there is no control operator
B	Under automatic control there is no control operator
C	Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
D	Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point

4. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Any amateur station designated by NASA
D	Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed
B	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team
C	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
D	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	All privileges of the Extra Class license
B	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
C	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
D	None, they must obtain a U.S. license

7. - E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

Select	Answer
A	Geostationary
B	Geomagnetic
C	LEO
D	HEO

8. - E2B10

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	20 KHz
B	3 KHz
C	15 KHz
D	10 KHz

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Select	Answer
A	Switch to a higher frequency HF band
B	Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
C	Switch to a lower frequency HF band
D	Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass

10. - E2D13

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

Select	Answer
A	PSK
B	IEEE 802.11
C	RTTY
D	Multi-tone AFSK

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic
B	Remote
C	ALE can use any type of control
D	Local

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the Moon is at apogee
B	When the Moon is at perigee
C	When the Moon is full
D	When the MUF is above 30 MHz

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Morning
B	Noon
C	Late at night
D	Afternoon or early evening

14. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Eastward
B	Southward
C	Westward
D	Northward

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
D	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source

16. - E4B17

What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
B	50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
C	50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
D	Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms

17. - E4C16

Which of the following is caused by missing codes in an SDR receiver's analog-to-digital converter?

Select	Answer
A	Loss of sensitivity
B	Overload
C	Distortion
D	Excess output level

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Neutralization
B	Intermodulation interference
C	Adjacent channel interference
D	Amplifier desensitization

19. - E4E15

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Common mode currents on the shield and conductors
B	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
C	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield
D	Use of braided shielding material

20. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Phase shift can become uncontrolled
B	Internal voltages and circulating currents increase
C	Parasitic effects are minimized
D	Fewer components are needed for the same performance

21. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B	68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C	14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D	14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C17

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 5
B	Point 1
C	Point 3
D	Point 8

23. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
B	Power lost because of capacitor leakage
C	Wattless, nonproductive power
D	Power consumed in circuit Q

24. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

Select	Answer
A	Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
B	Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
C	Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
D	Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	6
C	1
D	7

26. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

Select	Answer
A	An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design
B	A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
C	A device to control industrial equipment
D	Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits

27. - E6D17

Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics and distortion could result
B	Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
C	Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
D	RF susceptance would increase

28. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
B	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
C	Package mounts in a direct inverted position
D	Low leakage doubly insulated package

29. - E6F12

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	Electrons
B	Photons
C	Protons
D	Holes

30. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

Select	Answer
A	It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
B	It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
C	It adds two decimal numbers together
D	It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven segment LED display

31. - E7B08

How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

Select	Answer
A	By increasing the driving power
B	By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
C	By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
D	By reducing the driving power

32. - E7C01

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Select	Answer
A	Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
B	Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
C	An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
D	A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output

33. - E7D02

What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
B	The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
C	It gives a ramp voltage at its output
D	The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage

34. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
B	Two and four times the original frequency
C	The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
D	1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

35. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

Select	Answer
A	A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
B	Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
C	Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
D	Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal

36. - E7G07

What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	94
B	0.21
C	24
D	47

37. - E7H12

Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Select	Answer
A	Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
B	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
C	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
D	Bias the crystal at a specified current

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Select	Answer
A	Human speech
B	Video signals
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Data

39. - E8B01

What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM compressibility
B	Modulation index
C	Percentage of modulation
D	Quieting index

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	9.6 kHz
B	15.36 kHz
C	4.8 kHz
D	5.76 kHz

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
B	Baud rate
C	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
D	Signal to noise ratio

42. - E9A12

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	6.0 dB
B	3.85 dB
C	2.79 dB
D	8.15 dB

43. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	Radiation resistance
B	Elevation
C	Polarization
D	Azimuth

44. - E9C15

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

Select	Answer
A	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
B	The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
C	The horizontal beam width decreases with height
D	The horizontal beam width increases with height

45. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the transmitter as possible
B	Near the center of the vertical radiator
C	At a voltage node
D	As low as possible on the vertical radiator

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Characteristic impedance
B	Velocity factor
C	Dielectric constant
D	Reflection coefficient

47. - E9F05

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	3.5 meters
C	0.2 meters
D	2.3 meters

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance axis
B	Prime axis
C	Polar axis
D	Reactance axis

49. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
B	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
C	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
D	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

Select	Answer
A	By the yellowish appearance of the gas
B	Only with a carbon monoxide detector
C	By the odor
D	Any ordinary smoke detector can be used

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3