US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
D	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must cease operation
B	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
C	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
D	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	A control operator need not be present at the control point
B	A control operator must be present at the control point
C	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
D	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

4. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
B	Any amateur station designated by NASA
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
C	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
D	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
B	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
C	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
D	All privileges of the Extra Class license

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From west to east
B	From north to south
C	From east to west
D	From south to north

8. - E2B04

What is blanking in a video signal?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting a black and white test pattern
B	Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
C	Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
D	Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To relay calls to and from a DX station
B	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
C	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
D	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

10. - E2D10

How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

Select	Answer
A	An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
B	An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
C	All of these choices are correct
D	APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space signal have been inverted
B	Selective fading has occurred
C	One of the signal filters is saturated
D	The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

12. - E3A14

From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	West
B	South
C	East
D	North

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around sunset
B	Early evening
C	Around sunrise
D	Any time

14. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

Select	Answer
A	UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
B	The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels
C	The ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
D	The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity

15. - E4A15

What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

Select	Answer
A	It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
B	It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
C	It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
D	It can run on battery power for remote measurements

16. - E4B02

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It provides an excellent match under all conditions
B	It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
C	It is very precise in obtaining a signal null
D	It can display results directly in Smith chart format

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum detectable spectrum
B	The meter display sensitivity
C	The minimum discernible signal
D	The multiplex distortion stability

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Quieting
B	Desensitization
C	Squelch gain rollback
D	Cross-modulation interference

19. - E4E15

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Use of braided shielding material
B	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
C	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield
D	Common mode currents on the shield and conductors

20. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	High, as compared to the circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
C	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of impedance
B	The unit used for Q factor
C	The turns ratio of a transformer
D	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor

22. - E5C07

What is a vector?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of the sine function
B	The inverse of the tangent function
C	The value of a quantity that changes over time
D	A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component

23. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To maintain component lifetime
C	To increase the thermal time constant
D	To avoid unwanted inductive reactance

24. - E6A10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	2
C	5
D	4

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Tunnel
B	Junction
C	Zener
D	Point contact

26. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
B	Input signals are stronger
C	The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
D	The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage

27. - E6D01

How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

Select	Answer
A	141 turns
B	79 turns
C	13 turns
D	35 turns

28. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
B	Low leakage doubly insulated package
C	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
D	Package mounts in a direct inverted position

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 V
B	1.5 V
C	12 V
D	0.5 V

30. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Negative logic
B	Reverse Logic
C	Positive Logic
D	Assertive Logic

31. - E7B12

What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter follower
B	Common emitter
C	Common collector
D	Common base

32. - E7C07

What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network filter
B	An all-pass filter
C	A notch filter
D	A band-pass filter

33. - E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
B	To improve output voltage regulation
C	To balance the low-voltage filament windings
D	To boost the amount of output current

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
B	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
C	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
D	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Sample width in bits
B	Processor latency
C	Sample rate
D	Sample clock phase noise

36. - E7G12

What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
B	A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
C	A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
D	An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

37. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

Select	Answer
A	Using the oscillator only for CW and digital signals
B	Use of NP0 capacitors
C	Mechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
D	Eliminating noise on the oscillator's power supply

38. - E8A13

Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic regeneration
B	Sequential sampling
C	Phase reversal
D	Level shifting

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
B	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
C	A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
D	A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
B	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
C	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
D	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

41. - E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
B	The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
C	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
D	Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver

42. - E9A08

What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna length divided by the number of elements
B	The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
C	The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
D	The angle between the half-power radiation points

43. - E9B08

How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Select	Answer
A	Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
B	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
C	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
D	Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines

44. - E9C05

What is an OCFD antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
B	A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity
C	An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters
D	A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation

45. - E9D06

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes flat
B	No change occurs
C	It is decreased
D	It is increased

46. - E9E11

What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Select	Answer
A	Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
B	Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
C	Use the universal stub matching technique
D	Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance to the generator
B	Very low impedance
C	Very high impedance
D	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

48. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

Select	Answer
A	The reactance axis
B	The resistance axis
C	The voltage axis
D	The current axis

49. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
B	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
C	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
D	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Only commercial transmitters
B	Only the most powerful transmitter
C	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent
D	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-3