US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A06

Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
B	At the center frequency of the channel
C	At the lowest frequency of the channel
D	At the highest frequency of the channel

2. - E1B05

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

Select	Answer
A	An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
B	An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
C	An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
D	An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

3. - E1C09

Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
B	29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz
C	24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz
D	10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
D	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

5. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum passing score of 74%
B	Minimum passing score of 70%
C	Minimum passing score of 77%
D	Minimum passing score of 80%

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
B	It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
C	It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
D	It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

7. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	A linearly polarized antenna
B	A log-periodic dipole array
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A circularly polarized antenna

8. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
B	A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
C	Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
D	Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
B	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
C	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
D	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

10. - E2D13

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-tone AFSK
B	RTTY
C	IEEE 802.11
D	PSK

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	48 baud
C	1200 baud
D	110 baud

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	28 MHz - 148 MHz
B	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
C	220 MHz - 450 MHz
D	10 MHz - 14 MHz

13. - E3B09

At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
B	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
D	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox

14. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	Moderate solar wind
B	An extreme geomagnetic storm
C	Very low solar activity
D	Waning sunspot numbers

15. - E4A15

What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

Select	Answer
A	It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
B	It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
C	It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
D	It can run on battery power for remote measurements

16. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency order of the measurements
B	The relative time between measurements
C	The port or ports at which measurements are made
D	Relative quality of the data

17. - E4C04

How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
B	The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
C	The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
D	The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network

18. - E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Too little gain
B	Positive feedback
C	Nonlinear circuits or devices
D	Lack of neutralization

19. - E4E14

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

Select	Answer
A	A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
B	The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
C	A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
D	A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

20. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
B	Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
C	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
D	Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of impedance
B	The turns ratio of a transformer
C	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
D	The unit used for Q factor

22. - E5C01

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

Select	Answer
A	-jX
B	+jX
C	X
D	Omega

23. - E5D10

How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
B	By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
C	By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
D	By dividing the reactive power by the power factor

24. - E6A11

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	3
C	1
D	2

25. - E6B13

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive bias
B	Reverse bias
C	Zero bias
D	Forward bias

26. - E6C14

What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Complex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit
B	Many similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types
C	A PGA contains its own internal power supply
D	All of these choices are correct

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The inductor windings are over coupled
B	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
C	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
D	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled

28. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon nitride
B	Gallium nitride
C	Silicon
D	Silicon dioxide

29. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
B	An LED and a phototransistor
C	A lens and a photomultiplier
D	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

30. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Positive Logic
B	Negative logic
C	Assertive Logic
D	Reverse Logic

31. - E7B01

For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 180 degrees
B	Exactly 180 degrees
C	More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
D	The entire cycle

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Select	Answer
A	Cascode
B	Pi
C	Pi-L
D	Omega

33. - E7D16

When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
B	To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove third-order distortion products
B	For higher efficiency
C	To reduce impulse noise reception
D	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation

35. - E7F04

What is a common method of generating an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

Select	Answer
A	Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
B	Combine signals with a quadrature phase relationship
C	Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
D	A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	0.03
B	1
C	76
D	38

37. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
B	Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
C	Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
D	Wide-band AF and RF power amplification

38. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Fourier analysis
B	Differential analysis
C	Vector analysis
D	Numerical analysis

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
B	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
C	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
D	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
B	They are the same
C	Baud is twice the symbol rate
D	Baud is only used for RTTY

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	Faster transmission rate
B	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
C	The signal can overpower interfering signals
D	Foreign language characters can be sent

42. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

Select	Answer
A	Take-off angle
B	Soil conductivity
C	Distance from the transmitter
D	The standing wave ratio

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
B	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
C	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
D	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period

44. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An end fed folded dipole antenna
B	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
C	A center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in phase)
D	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The front-to-back ratio decreases
B	The front-to-back ratio increases
C	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
D	The SWR is reduced

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR greater than 1:1
B	A dielectric constant greater than 1
C	An SWR less than 1:1
D	A reflection coefficient greater than 1

47. - E9F04

What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

Select	Answer
A	0.10
B	0.30
C	2.70
D	0.66

48. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Beam headings and radiation patterns
B	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
C	Trigonometric functions
D	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It has a bidirectional pattern
B	It receives equally well in all directions
C	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
D	It is non-rotatable

50. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
B	Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
C	Reduce received noise
D	Lightning protection

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-4