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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A14

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

SelectAnswer
A2.8 kHz
B60 Hz
C170 Hz
D1.5 kHz

2. - E1B02

Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

SelectAnswer
AThe location is of geographical or horticultural importance
BThe location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
CThe location is near an area of political conflict
DThe location is in an ITU Zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments

3. - E1C01

What is a remotely controlled station?

SelectAnswer
AA station operated away from its regular home location
BA station controlled by someone other than the licensee
CA station controlled indirectly through a control link
DA station operating under automatic control

4. - E1D03

What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

SelectAnswer
AAn amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
BAn amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
CAn amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
DAn amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BRevocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
CA sentence of up to one year in prison
DA fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

6. - E1F10

What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

SelectAnswer
A1.5 W
B10 W
C1 W
D1.5 kW

7. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
APSK and Packet
BSSB and SSTV
CAll of these choices are correct
DFM and CW

8. - E2B14

What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

SelectAnswer
ASync amplitude
BSync frequency
CTone amplitude
DTone frequency

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

SelectAnswer
AIt is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
BOperators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
CEvery contest requires a signal report in the exchange
DInterference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable

10. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

SelectAnswer
AUse of high speed CW or digital modes
B15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
CAll of these choices are correct
DShort transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

11. - E2E05

Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

SelectAnswer
ARTTY
BWinlink
CMFSK
DPSK31

12. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

SelectAnswer
ATemperature inversion
BThe jet stream
CWind shear
DDust devil

13. - E3B12

What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?

SelectAnswer
APropagation across the geomagnetic equator
BPropagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
CSuccessive ionospheric reflections without an intermediate reflection from the ground
DSignals reflected back toward the transmitting station

14. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
BThe solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
CThe solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels
DUV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA wattmeter
BA logic analyzer
CA spectrum analyzer
DA time-domain reflectometer

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

SelectAnswer
A0.1 MHz
B1.4652 Hz
C1.4652 kHz
D14.652 Hz

17. - E4C15

What is usually the primary source of noise that is heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

SelectAnswer
AAtmospheric noise
BDetector noise
CReceiver front-end noise
DInduction motor noise

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

SelectAnswer
ASquelch gain rollback
BDesensitization
CCross-modulation interference
DQuieting

19. - E4E16

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

SelectAnswer
ACommon-mode current
BReturn current
CReactive current only
DDifferential-mode current

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately equal to capacitive reactance
BApproximately equal to inductive reactance
CApproximately equal to circuit resistance
DLow, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B02

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

SelectAnswer
AAn exponential discharge rate of one
BA discharge factor of one
COne discharge period
DOne time constant

22. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
AMaidenhead grid
BElliptical coordinates
CFaraday grid
DPolar coordinates

23. - E5D15

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A1.0
B0.707
C0.5
D0.866

24. - E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
BTo protect the substrate from excessive voltages
CTo keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
DTo reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

SelectAnswer
AElectrolytic rectifier
BMetal-semiconductor junction
CCMOS-field effect
DThermionic emission diode

26. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

SelectAnswer
AA device to control industrial equipment
BProgrammable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
CA programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
DAn algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design

27. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe skin effect
BNon-linear core hysteresis
CInter-turn capacitance
DInductive kickback

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
ATO-220
BSurface mount
CRadial lead
DAxial lead

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

SelectAnswer
AIt becomes unstable
BIt decreases
CIt increases
DIt stays the same

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
BIt produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
CIt produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
DIt produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"

31. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
BWhere the load line intersects the voltage axis
CAt a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
DAt a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

SelectAnswer
APi
BPi-L
CCascode
DOmega

33. - E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

SelectAnswer
ASwitching voltage regulator
BGrounded emitter amplifier
CLinear voltage regulator
DEmitter follower

34. - E7E10

How does a diode detector function?

SelectAnswer
ABy rectification and filtering of RF signals
BBy sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
CBy breakdown of the Zener voltage
DBy mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

35. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters?

SelectAnswer
AConverting data to binary code decimal form
BAttenuating the signal
CRemoving unnecessary significant digits
DReducing the effective sample rate by removing samples

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

SelectAnswer
A7
B28
C14
D0.07

37. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

SelectAnswer
AThe phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
BThe phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
CThe amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
DThe synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories

38. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AA sine wave
BA square wave
CA cosine wave
DA sawtooth wave

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

SelectAnswer
AOFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
BExtremely low-power contacts
CEME
DHigh speed digital modes

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

SelectAnswer
ABinary Coded Decimal Code
BExcess 3 code
CExtended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
DGray code

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

SelectAnswer
ASome types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
BForeign language characters can be sent
CFaster transmission rate
DThe signal can overpower interfering signals

42. - E9A05

What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

SelectAnswer
ARadiation resistance plus space impedance
BTransmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
CRadiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
DRadiation resistance plus transmission resistance

43. - E9B11

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

SelectAnswer
AThe resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
BGround conductivity will not be accurately modeled
CThe computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
DThe antenna will become mechanically unstable

44. - E9C06

What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
BIt changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
CIt changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
DIt decreases the ground loss

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

SelectAnswer
ATo maximize losses
BTo minimize losses
CTo swamp out harmonics
DTo minimize the Q

46. - E9E01

What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

SelectAnswer
AThe gamma matching system
BThe stub matching system
CThe delta matching system
DThe omega matching system

47. - E9F16

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

SelectAnswer
AFoam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length
BAll of these choices are correct
CFoam dielectric has higher velocity factor
DFoam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

SelectAnswer
AFree space radiation directivity chart
BElevation angle radiation pattern chart
CAzimuth angle radiation pattern chart
DSmith chart

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
BIt should be configured as a four-sided loop
CIts overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
DIt should be one or more wavelengths long

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

SelectAnswer
AIngestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
BBlood clotting from the intense magnetic field
CHearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
DLocalized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits

Figure E7-3

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-3