US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A07

Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	17 meter band
B	60 meter band
C	30 meter band
D	12 meter band

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served

3. - E1C12

What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
C	Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
D	Business-related messages for non-profit organizations

4. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	2 meters and 1.25 meters
B	6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
C	6 meters and 2 meters
D	2 meters

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In FCC Part 97
B	In a question pool maintained by the FCC
C	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
D	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs

6. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

Select	Answer
A	222 MHz - 223 MHz
B	440 MHz - 450 MHz
C	420 MHz - 430 MHz
D	53 MHz - 54 MHz

7. - E2A10

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Select	Answer
A	Because of ionospheric absorption
B	Because the satellite is spinning
C	Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
D	Because of the Doppler Effect

8. - E2B08

Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation of the video carrier
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
D	A separate VHF or UHF audio link

9. - E2C02

Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting in regards to HF contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
B	A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
C	The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
D	An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

10. - E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Node hopping
B	Digipeating
C	Store-and-forward
D	Multi-satellite relaying

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
B	It depends on the lunar phase
C	Stations take turns on alternate days
D	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets

12. - E3A04

What do Hepburn maps predict?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic E propagation
B	Locations of auroral reflecting zones
C	Likelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts
D	Probability of tropospheric propagation

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	2500 miles
B	5000 miles
C	1000 miles
D	7500 miles

14. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	An extreme geomagnetic storm
B	Waning sunspot numbers
C	Moderate solar wind
D	Very low solar activity

15. - E4A08

Which of the following instrument would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A spectrum analyzer
B	An ohmmeter
C	An antenna analyzer
D	A Q meter

16. - E4B13

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S11
B	S12
C	S22
D	S21

17. - E4C09

Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Improved receiver noise figure
B	Fewer components in the receiver
C	Reduced drift
D	Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
B	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
C	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
D	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals

19. - E4E16

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

Select	Answer
A	Common-mode current
B	Differential-mode current
C	Return current
D	Reactive current only

20. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	1.78 MHz
B	22.36 MHz
C	3.56 MHz
D	44.72 MHz

21. - E5B02

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

Select	Answer
A	An exponential discharge rate of one
B	One time constant
C	A discharge factor of one
D	One discharge period

22. - E5C13

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday grid
B	Rectangular coordinates
C	Elliptical coordinates
D	Maidenhead grid

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	200 Watts
B	70.7 Watts
C	141.4 Watts
D	100 Watts

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
B	Any FET without a channel
C	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
D	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
B	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
C	A sub-harmonic pump signal
D	Forward DC bias current

26. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Input signals are stronger
B	The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
C	Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
D	The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage

27. - E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Select	Answer
A	Increased conductivity in the presence of light
B	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
C	Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
D	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage

28. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

Select	Answer
A	Ball grid array
B	PLCC
C	DIP
D	SOT

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	12 V
B	0.1 V
C	1.5 V
D	0.5 V

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
C	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Self bias
B	Fixed bias
C	Feedback
D	Load resistors

32. - E7C14

Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Meteor scatter
C	Single-Sideband voice
D	Video

33. - E7D02

What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It gives a ramp voltage at its output
B	The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
C	It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
D	The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current

34. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A de-emphasis network
B	A heterodyne suppressor
C	An audio prescaler
D	A pre-emphasis network

35. - E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

Select	Answer
A	Data storage transfer rate
B	Missing codes and jitter
C	Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
D	Sample clock phase noise

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It does not vary with frequency
B	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
C	It increases linearly with increasing frequency
D	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a quartz crystal
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through link coupling
D	Through a tapped coil

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By using an absorption wave meter
B	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C	By using a grid dip meter
D	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

39. - E8B10

What describes frequency division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
B	The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
C	The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
D	Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

40. - E8C03

When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous detector
C	It improves carrier suppression
D	This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the particular mode

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
B	Signal to noise ratio
C	Baud rate
D	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)

42. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

Select	Answer
A	Soil conductivity
B	The standing wave ratio
C	Take-off angle
D	Distance from the transmitter

43. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	25 degrees
B	75 degrees
C	7.5 degrees
D	45 degrees

44. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Cardioid
B	A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
C	Omni-directional
D	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR is reduced
B	The front-to-back ratio decreases
C	The front-to-back ratio increases
D	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
B	An SWR greater than 1:1
C	A dielectric constant greater than 1
D	An SWR less than 1:1

47. - E9F16

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Select	Answer
A	Foam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length
B	Foam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits
C	Foam dielectric has higher velocity factor
D	All of these choices are correct

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	SWR
B	Points with constant resistance
C	Points with constant reactance
D	Frequency

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It receives equally well in all directions
B	It has a bidirectional pattern
C	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
D	It is non-rotatable

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Zinc oxide
B	Uranium Hexafluoride
C	Beryllium Oxide
D	Mica

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-2