US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
B	The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
C	Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
D	The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
B	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	A control operator need not be present at the control point
B	A control operator must be present at the control point
C	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
D	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

4. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station designated by NASA
B	Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
C	Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
D	All of these choices are correct

5. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

Select	Answer
A	The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
B	A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
C	An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
D	A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications in a language other than English
B	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
C	Communications that have a religious content
D	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine

7. - E2A12

What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

Select	Answer
A	By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
B	By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
C	By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
D	By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	29.6 MHz
B	52.525 MHz
C	14.230 MHz
D	1255 MHz

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Select	Answer
A	Switch to a lower frequency HF band
B	Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
C	Switch to a higher frequency HF band
D	Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass

10. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	High speed CW identification to avoid fading
B	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
C	Storing and forwarding digital messages
D	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
B	The mark and space signal have been inverted
C	One of the signal filters is saturated
D	Selective fading has occurred

12. - E3A14

From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	East
B	North
C	South
D	West

13. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
B	Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
C	Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
D	Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator

14. - E3C15

What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?

Select	Answer
A	Increased transequatorial propagation likely
B	Long-path propagation is occurring
C	A meteor ping
D	A solar flare has occurred

15. - E4A13

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
B	A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
C	A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
D	A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

16. - E4B15

Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency shift
B	The resonant frequency of the circuit
C	The inductance to capacitance ratio
D	The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response

17. - E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

Select	Answer
A	6000 Hz
B	2400 Hz
C	100 Hz
D	300 Hz

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Cross-modulation interference
B	Quieting
C	Desensitization
D	Squelch gain rollback

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Ignition noise
C	Broadband white noise
D	Power line noise

20. - E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	L/R
B	Maximum
C	R/L
D	Minimum

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The sign is reversed
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance
D	It is unchanged

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 1
B	Point 8
C	Point 3
D	Point 7

23. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

Select	Answer
A	To avoid unwanted inductive reactance
B	To maintain component lifetime
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To increase the thermal time constant

24. - E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

Select	Answer
A	To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
B	To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
C	To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
D	To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

25. - E6B04

What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon-controlled rectifier
B	Varactor diode
C	Tunnel diode
D	Zener diode

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Logic devices that utilize ternary math
B	Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
C	Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
D	Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

27. - E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Select	Answer
A	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
B	Increased conductivity in the presence of light
C	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage
D	Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light

28. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon
B	Silicon nitride
C	Gallium nitride
D	Silicon dioxide

29. - E6F01

What is photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
B	The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
C	The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
D	The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	An "AND" gate
C	An "OR" gate
D	A clock

31. - E7B02

What is a Class D amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency doubling amplifier
B	An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
C	A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
D	A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
B	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
C	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
D	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It has a ramp voltage as its output
B	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
C	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
D	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
B	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
C	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
D	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Sample rate
B	Sample clock phase noise
C	Sample width in bits
D	Processor latency

36. - E7G07

What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	0.21
B	47
C	24
D	94

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
B	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
C	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
D	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration

38. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave
B	A sine wave
C	A cosine wave
D	A sawtooth wave

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	High speed digital modes
B	Extremely low-power contacts
C	EME
D	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
B	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
C	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
D	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

41. - E8D09

What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	-20 dB
B	-30 dB
C	+15 dB
D	+10 dB

42. - E9A04

Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
B	Transmission-line length
C	The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
D	Sunspot activity and time of day

43. - E9B10

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

Select	Answer
A	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
B	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
C	A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
D	A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator

44. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
C	A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	SWR bandwidth increases
B	SWR bandwidth decreases
C	More common-mode current is present on the feed line
D	Gain is reduced

46. - E9E13

What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

Select	Answer
A	It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
B	It is used to divide power equally between two 50 ohm loads while maintaining 50 ohm input impedance
C	It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
D	It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

47. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
C	An inductive reactance
D	A capacitive reactance

48. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

Select	Answer
A	In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
B	In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
C	In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
D	In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
B	A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
C	One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
D	A large circularly polarized antenna

50. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

Select	Answer
A	Polychlorinated Biphenyls
B	Polytetrafluroethylene
C	Polymorphic silicon
D	Polyethylene

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-4