US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A01

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	300 Hz below the upper band edge
B	The exact upper band edge
C	3 kHz below the upper band edge
D	1 kHz below the upper band edge

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	1 mile
B	30 miles
C	3 miles
D	10 miles

3. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Select	Answer
A	When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
B	When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
C	Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
D	Never

4. - E1D04

What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
B	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere
C	Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
D	An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team
B	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
C	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
D	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
B	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
C	All privileges of the Extra Class license
D	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
B	435 MHz - 438 MHz
C	144 MHz - 146 MHz
D	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz

8. - E2B19

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted above 54 MHz
B	They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
C	They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
D	None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies

9. - E2C04

What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
B	Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
C	Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
D	Store and forward on the 440 MHz band

10. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	APRS
B	FSK441
C	WSPR
D	Hellschreiber

11. - E2E07

What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

Select	Answer
A	31 Hz
B	316 Hz
C	550 Hz
D	2.16 kHz

12. - E3A13

Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	SSB
C	FM
D	CW

13. - E3B13

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

Select	Answer
A	Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
B	Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
C	The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
D	The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation

14. - E3C15

What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?

Select	Answer
A	Increased transequatorial propagation likely
B	A solar flare has occurred
C	A meteor ping
D	Long-path propagation is occurring

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
D	Match the antenna to the load

16. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency order of the measurements
B	The port or ports at which measurements are made
C	Relative quality of the data
D	The relative time between measurements

17. - E4C02

Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

Select	Answer
A	A notch filter
B	A properly adjusted product detector
C	A front-end filter or pre-selector
D	A narrow IF filter

18. - E4D14

Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the receiver front end gain
B	Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
C	Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
D	Raise the receiver IF frequency

19. - E4E05

How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

Select	Answer
A	By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
B	By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
C	By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
D	By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Select	Answer
A	R/L
B	Minimum
C	L/R
D	Maximum

21. - E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B	76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C	14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D	76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C12

If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It is equivalent to a pure resistance
B	It contains resistance and inductive reactance
C	It has to be a direct current circuit
D	It contains resistance and capacitive reactance

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In all directions; omni-directional
B	In the same direction as the current
C	In a direction opposite to the current
D	In a direction determined by the left-hand rule

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
B	Any FET without a channel
C	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
D	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a high voltage rectifier
B	As a constant current source
C	As a constant voltage source
D	As an RF switch

26. - E6C11

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	5
C	4
D	2

27. - E6D17

Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
B	Harmonics and distortion could result
C	RF susceptance would increase
D	Temporary changes of the core permeability could result

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	MMICs require no operating bias
B	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
C	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead

29. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
B	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
C	A lens and a photomultiplier
D	An LED and a phototransistor

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	An OR gate
B	A flip-flop
C	A multiplexer
D	An XOR gate

31. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even order harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Push-pull
B	Class C
C	Class AB
D	Push-push

32. - E7C13

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
B	Pi-networks have fewer components
C	L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
D	Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
B	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
C	It has a ramp voltage as its output
D	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

34. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A balanced modulator on the oscillator
B	A reactance modulator on the oscillator
C	A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
D	A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Sample rate
B	Sample clock phase noise
C	Sample width in bits
D	Processor latency

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As an audio filter in a receiver
B	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
C	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
D	For smoothing power supply output

37. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce, Fenner and Beane
B	Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
C	Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
D	Taft, Hartley and Pierce

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the modulating signal
B	The characteristics of the modulating signal
C	The degree of carrier suppression
D	The amplifier gain

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
B	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
C	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
D	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter

40. - E8C04

What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Zero-sum character encoding
B	Use of trapezoidal data pulses
C	Use of sinusoidal data pulses
D	Reed-Solomon character encoding

41. - E8D09

What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	-30 dB
B	-20 dB
C	+15 dB
D	+10 dB

42. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

Select	Answer
A	Take-off angle
B	Soil conductivity
C	The standing wave ratio
D	Distance from the transmitter

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
B	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
C	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
D	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted

44. - E9C05

What is an OCFD antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
B	A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
C	An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters
D	A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	SWR bandwidth decreases
B	More common-mode current is present on the feed line
C	SWR bandwidth increases
D	Gain is reduced

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
B	A dielectric constant greater than 1
C	An SWR greater than 1:1
D	An SWR less than 1:1

47. - E9F02

Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The termination impedance
B	Dielectric materials used in the line
C	The center conductor resistivity
D	The line length

48. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
D	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center

49. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
B	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
C	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
D	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source

50. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Select	Answer
A	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
B	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
C	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
D	Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Figure E6-5