US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole

2. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
B	You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
C	You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
D	You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	A control operator need not be present at the control point
B	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
C	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
D	A control operator must be present at the control point

4. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
B	Any amateur station designated by NASA
C	Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
D	All of these choices are correct

5. - E1E14

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
B	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
C	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
D	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From south to north
B	From north to south
C	From west to east
D	From east to west

8. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

Select	Answer
A	To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
B	To provide vertical synchronization
C	To identify the SSTV mode being used
D	To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To separate the calling stations from the DX station
C	Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
D	To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

10. - E2D04

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
B	To upload operational software for the transponder
C	To delay download of telemetry between satellites
D	To relay messages between satellites

11. - E2E01

Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	FSK
B	Pulse modulation
C	Spread spectrum
D	DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

12. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
B	A fluttery irregular fading
C	The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
D	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	2500 miles
B	1000 miles
C	7500 miles
D	5000 miles

14. - E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

Select	Answer
A	AC current and impedance
B	HF propagation
C	VHF radio propagation
D	AC voltage and impedance

15. - E4A08

Which of the following instrument would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A spectrum analyzer
B	An antenna analyzer
C	A Q meter
D	An ohmmeter

16. - E4B02

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It can display results directly in Smith chart format
B	It provides an excellent match under all conditions
C	It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
D	It is very precise in obtaining a signal null

17. - E4C11

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

Select	Answer
A	4.8 kHz
B	4.2 kHz
C	2.4 kHz
D	1 kHz

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
B	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
C	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
D	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

19. - E4E11

Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

Select	Answer
A	Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
B	Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
C	The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
D	You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

20. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
D	High, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B01

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

Select	Answer
A	A time factor of one
B	One exponential period
C	An exponential rate of one
D	One time constant

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 7
B	Point 1
C	Point 8
D	Point 3

23. - E5D18

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

Select	Answer
A	1.42 mW
B	355 W
C	252 W
D	704 W

24. - E6A10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	2
B	5
C	4
D	6

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	A sub-harmonic pump signal
B	Forward DC bias current
C	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
D	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal

26. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
B	A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
C	An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design
D	A device to control industrial equipment

27. - E6D15

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

Select	Answer
A	Stabilizing current
B	Excitation current
C	Direct current
D	Magnetizing current

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

Select	Answer
A	Axial lead
B	Radial lead
C	TO-220
D	Surface mount

29. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
B	The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
C	The conversion of light to electrical energy
D	The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	An OR gate
C	An XOR gate
D	A multiplexer

31. - E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Tune both the input and output for maximum power
B	Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
C	Use a phase inverter in the output filter
D	Tune the stage for maximum SWR

32. - E7C09

What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?

Select	Answer
A	A special filter that emphasizes image responses
B	An automatic notch filter
C	A filter that removes impulse noise E7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter
D	A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter

33. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

Select	Answer
A	A series regulator
B	A constant current source
C	A shunt current source
D	A shunt regulator

34. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
B	The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
C	Two and four times the original frequency
D	The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies

35. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

Select	Answer
A	Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
B	To reduce excess signal pressure levels
C	Provide access for debugging software
D	Select the point at which baseband signals are generated

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	Very high
C	1000 ohms
D	Very low

37. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Select	Answer
A	Nyquist limit noise
B	Broadband noise
C	Digital conversion noise
D	Spurious signals at discrete frequencies

38. - E8A09

How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolution encode?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
C	256
D	256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier

39. - E8B09

What is meant by deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
C	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	15.36 kHz
B	4.8 kHz
C	9.6 kHz
D	5.76 kHz

41. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

Select	Answer
A	A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
B	The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
C	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
D	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

42. - E9A18

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

Select	Answer
A	Apparent power
B	Effective radiated power
C	Half-power bandwidth
D	Power factor

43. - E9B13

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Select	Answer
A	Next Element Comparison
B	Numerical Electromagnetic Code
C	National Electrical Code
D	Numeric Electrical Computation

44. - E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole constructed from zip cord
B	An end fed dipole antenna
C	An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
D	A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize the Q
B	To minimize losses
C	To maximize losses
D	To swamp out harmonics

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Reflection coefficient
B	Velocity factor
C	Characteristic impedance
D	Dielectric constant

47. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
C	Very high impedance
D	The same as the generator output impedance

48. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance and voltage
B	Voltage and impedance
C	Resistance and reactance
D	Resistance and voltage

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
B	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
C	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
D	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

Select	Answer
A	By the yellowish appearance of the gas
B	By the odor
C	Only with a carbon monoxide detector
D	Any ordinary smoke detector can be used

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-2