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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A04

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
ANo, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
BYes, because the DX station initiated the contact
CNo, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
DYes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

SelectAnswer
ASpecific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
BSpecific local government channels
CMilitary Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
DAll amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator

3. - E1C07

What is meant by local control?

SelectAnswer
AControlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
BControlling a station through a local auxiliary link
CAutomatically manipulating local station controls
DDirect manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

SelectAnswer
A33 cm and 13 cm
B70 cm only
C70 cm and 33 cm
D70 cm and 13 cm

5. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

SelectAnswer
AThe prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
BEach General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
CThe procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
DThe amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

6. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

SelectAnswer
A440 MHz - 450 MHz
B222 MHz - 223 MHz
C53 MHz - 54 MHz
D420 MHz - 430 MHz

7. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BSSB and SSTV
CFM and CW
DPSK and Packet

8. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

SelectAnswer
AChroma
BHue
CLuminance
DSpectral Intensity

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

SelectAnswer
A/R# where # is the district of the remote station
BNo additional indicator is required
CThe ARRL section of the remote station
D/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located

10. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

SelectAnswer
AHellschreiber
BAPRS
CWSPR
DFSK441

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

SelectAnswer
AThe receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
BThe mark and space signal have been inverted
COne of the signal filters is saturated
DSelective fading has occurred

12. - E3A04

What do Hepburn maps predict?

SelectAnswer
ALikelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts
BSporadic E propagation
CLocations of auroral reflecting zones
DProbability of tropospheric propagation

13. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
A10 meters
B6 meters
C80 meters
D20 meters

14. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

SelectAnswer
AWestward
BSouthward
CEastward
DNorthward

15. - E4A15

What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not require an expensive high-precision time base
BIt can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
CIt provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
DIt can run on battery power for remote measurements

16. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
BThe transmitter is not properly neutralized
CThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
DThere is more power going into the antenna

17. - E4C03

What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

SelectAnswer
ACross-modulation interference
BFrequency discrimination
CDesensitization
DCapture effect

18. - E4D07

Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

SelectAnswer
AA large increase in background noise
BA reduction in apparent signal strength
CThe desired signal can no longer be heard
DThe off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal

19. - E4E13

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

SelectAnswer
AArcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
BAll of these choices are correct
CA malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
DA defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

20. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?

SelectAnswer
AInternal voltages and circulating currents increase
BPhase shift can become uncontrolled
CParasitic effects are minimized
DFewer components are needed for the same performance

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of magnetic field to electric field
BThe magnetic impedance of a circuit
CThe inverse of reactance
DA measure of the efficiency of a transformer

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
BThe tangent and cotangent values
CThe magnitude and phase of the point
DThe sine and cosine values

23. - E5D16

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A1.73
B0.5
C0.577
D0.866

24. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

SelectAnswer
AAlpha cutoff frequency
BBeta cutoff frequency
CAlpha rejection frequency
DCorner frequency

25. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

SelectAnswer
AExcessive inverse voltage
BExcessive junction temperature
CCharge carrier depletion
DInsufficient forward voltage

26. - E6C14

What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?

SelectAnswer
AMany similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types
BAll of these choices are correct
CComplex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit
DA PGA contains its own internal power supply

27. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a slug core in a variable inductor?

SelectAnswer
ATeflon and Delrin
BPolystyrene and polyethylene
CCobalt and aluminum
DFerrite and brass

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
BDirectly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
CMMICs require no operating bias
DThrough a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

29. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

SelectAnswer
AThe conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
BThe tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
CThe conversion of light to electrical energy
DThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy

30. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

SelectAnswer
ANegative logic
BAssertive Logic
CReverse Logic
DPositive Logic

31. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

SelectAnswer
AAt a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
BAt a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
CApproximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
DWhere the load line intersects the voltage axis

32. - E7C07

What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

SelectAnswer
AAn all-pass filter
BA Pi-network filter
CA notch filter
DA band-pass filter

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AThe conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
BThe control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
CIt has a ramp voltage as its output
DIt eliminates the need for a pass transistor

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

SelectAnswer
ATo produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
BTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
CTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
DTo produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

35. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

SelectAnswer
AAt the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
BAt twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
CAt half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
DAt four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

SelectAnswer
A1000 ohms
BVery low
CVery high
D100 ohms

37. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

SelectAnswer
AArmstrong and deForest
BPierce and Zener
CColpitts and Hartley
DNegative feedback and balanced feedback

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

SelectAnswer
AImprove accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input
BAll of these choices are correct
CLower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
DRemove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
AA frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
BA bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
CA digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
DA digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference

40. - E8C02

What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

SelectAnswer
AThe duration of each bit in a message sent over the air
BThe number of control characters in a message packet
CThe rate at which the waveform of a transmitted signal changes to convey information
DThe number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

SelectAnswer
ABaudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
BBaudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
CBaudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
DBaudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

42. - E9A16

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

SelectAnswer
A317 watts
B2000 watts
C126 watts
D300 watts

43. - E9B16

How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A7
B4
C3
D1

44. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
A72 ohms
B450 ohms
C300 ohms
D50 ohms

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

SelectAnswer
ATo maximize losses
BTo minimize losses
CTo minimize the Q
DTo swamp out harmonics

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
BTo cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
CTo provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
DTo transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
BThe same as the input impedance to the generator
CVery high impedance
DVery low impedance

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

SelectAnswer
AElevation angle radiation pattern chart
BSmith chart
CFree space radiation directivity chart
DAzimuth angle radiation pattern chart

49. - E9H04

What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations
BIt allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
CIt is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
DIt eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

SelectAnswer
ABy the yellowish appearance of the gas
BAny ordinary smoke detector can be used
COnly with a carbon monoxide detector
DBy the odor

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3