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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A12

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
AYes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
BNo, U.S. stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz
CNo, one of the sidebands of the CW signal will be out of the band
DYes, the DX station initiated the contact

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

SelectAnswer
AMilitary Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
BAll amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
CSpecific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
DSpecific local government channels

3. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

SelectAnswer
AWhen approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
BWhen agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
COnly when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
DNever

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

SelectAnswer
A70 cm and 33 cm
B70 cm only
C33 cm and 13 cm
D70 cm and 13 cm

5. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum passing score of 77%
BMinimum passing score of 80%
CMinimum passing score of 70%
DMinimum passing score of 74%

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
BThe equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
CIt was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
DIt was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government

7. - E2A14

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

SelectAnswer
ARadar
BAPRS
CBandwidth compressed LORAN
DDoppler shift of beacon signals

8. - E2B02

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

SelectAnswer
A1080
B60
C30
D525

9. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?

SelectAnswer
AAn optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
BA 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem
CA standard wireless router running custom software
DA 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem

10. - E2D04

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
ATo store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
BTo delay download of telemetry between satellites
CTo relay messages between satellites
DTo upload operational software for the transponder

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

SelectAnswer
ADirect FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
BDirect FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
CAudio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
DAudio FSK has a superior frequency response

12. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?

SelectAnswer
AWarm and cold fronts
BLightning discharges
CSprites and jets
DGray-line

13. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
APropagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
BPropagation between two stations at the same latitude
CPropagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
DPropagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator

14. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AElliptical
BVertical
CHorizontal
DCircular

15. - E4A08

Which of the following instrument would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA Q meter
BA spectrum analyzer
CAn ohmmeter
DAn antenna analyzer

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
AInput attenuator accuracy
BDecade divider accuracy
CTime base accuracy
DTemperature coefficient of the logic

17. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A-174 dBm
B-148 dBm
C-164 dBm
D-155 dBm

18. - E4D02

Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

SelectAnswer
ACross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
BOscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
CCross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
DOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

19. - E4E05

How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

SelectAnswer
ABy installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
BBy installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
CBy installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
DBy using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

20. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
BThe current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
CThe voltage and current are in phase
DThe voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

21. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C01

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

SelectAnswer
A-jX
B+jX
CX
DOmega

23. - E5D01

What is the result of skin effect?

SelectAnswer
AAs frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
BThermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
CThermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
DAs frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface

24. - E6A10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

SelectAnswer
A4
B2
C6
D5

25. - E6B09

What is a common use for point contact diodes?

SelectAnswer
AAs a constant voltage source
BAs a high voltage rectifier
CAs a constant current source
DAs an RF detector

26. - E6C11

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

SelectAnswer
A2
B6
C4
D5

27. - E6D07

What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

SelectAnswer
AFrom approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
BFrom less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
CFrom a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
DFrom about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

28. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

SelectAnswer
APLCC
BBall grid array
CDIP
DSOT

29. - E6F01

What is photoconductivity?

SelectAnswer
AThe conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
BThe increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
CThe decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
DThe conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
BIt produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
CIt produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
DIt produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

SelectAnswer
AFeedback
BFixed bias
CLoad resistors
DSelf bias

32. - E7C12

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

SelectAnswer
AA Phase Inverter Load network
BA matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
CA network with only three discrete parts
DA Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output

33. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

SelectAnswer
APrevention of battery damage due to overcharge
BControl of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
CMatching of day and night charge rates
DPrevention of battery undercharge

34. - E7E07

What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

SelectAnswer
AThe basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
BThe lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
CThe frequency components present in the modulating signal
DThe unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

35. - E7F09

Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?

SelectAnswer
AIt notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
BIt peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
CIt removes low frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration
DIt removes high-frequency signal components which would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

SelectAnswer
AThe potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
BThe differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
CThe difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
DThe output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

37. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a capacitive divider
BThrough a neutralizing capacitor
CThrough a tapped coil
DThrough link coupling

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

SelectAnswer
AVideo signals
BData
CAll of these choices are correct
DHuman speech

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.6
B60
C1.67
D0.167

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

SelectAnswer
AExcess 3 code
BExtended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
CBinary Coded Decimal Code
DGray code

41. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

SelectAnswer
AA pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
BIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
CIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
DThe frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

42. - E9A16

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

SelectAnswer
A317 watts
B300 watts
C126 watts
D2000 watts

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

SelectAnswer
A75 degrees
B30 degrees
C25 degrees
D50 degrees

44. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in phase)
BA portable antenna erected using two push support poles
CAn end fed folded dipole antenna
DA wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing

45. - E9D01

How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

SelectAnswer
AGain does not change
BGain increases by 3 dB
CGain is multiplied by 0.707
DGain increases by 6 dB

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

SelectAnswer
AThe omega match
BThe stub match
CThe delta match
DThe gamma match

47. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AThe same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
BAn inductive reactance
CA capacitive reactance
DThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line

48. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna-length circles
BCoaxial-length circles
CStanding wave ratio circles
DRadiation-pattern circles

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
BIt modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
CIt provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
DIt allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
BSynthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
CSignal Amplification Rating
DThe rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

Figure E6-2

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-1