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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

SelectAnswer
AOnly a person named in an amateur station license grant
BOnly a person with an FCC Marine Radio
CAny person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
DAny person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

2. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

SelectAnswer
AYou must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
BNo special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
CYou must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
DYou may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

SelectAnswer
AUnder local control there is no control operator
BUnder automatic control there is no control operator
CUnder automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
DUnder local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

SelectAnswer
AOnly Amateur Extra Class
BAny class with appropriate operator privileges
COnly General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
DAll except Technician Class

5. - E1E01

What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

SelectAnswer
A5
B3
C4
D2

6. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

SelectAnswer
A420 MHz - 430 MHz
B53 MHz - 54 MHz
C440 MHz - 450 MHz
D222 MHz - 223 MHz

7. - E2A12

What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

SelectAnswer
ABy adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
BBy means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
CBy calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
DBy subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

8. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

SelectAnswer
ATo lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
BTo provide vertical synchronization
CTo identify the call sign of the station transmitting
DTo identify the SSTV mode being used

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

SelectAnswer
ATo improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
BBecause the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
CTo separate the calling stations from the DX station
DAll of these choices are correct

10. - E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

SelectAnswer
AMulti-satellite relaying
BStore-and-forward
CDigipeating
DNode hopping

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

SelectAnswer
AALE can use any type of control
BAutomatic
CRemote
DLocal

12. - E3A04

What do Hepburn maps predict?

SelectAnswer
ALocations of auroral reflecting zones
BProbability of tropospheric propagation
CSporadic E propagation
DLikelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts

13. - E3B04

What is meant by the terms extraordinary and ordinary waves?

SelectAnswer
ALong path and short path waves
BIndependent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
CRefracted rays and reflected waves
DExtraordinary waves describe rare long skip propagation compared to ordinary waves which travel shorter distances

14. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

SelectAnswer
AUV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
BThe ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
CThe solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
DThe solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels

15. - E4A14

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
AIt divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
BIt prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
CIt amplifies low level signals for more accurate counting
DIt multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

16. - E4B16

Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?

SelectAnswer
AS11
BS12
CS21
DS22

17. - E4C03

What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

SelectAnswer
ACross-modulation interference
BFrequency discrimination
CCapture effect
DDesensitization

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

SelectAnswer
ACross-modulation interference
BQuieting
CSquelch gain rollback
DDesensitization

19. - E4E10

What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

SelectAnswer
AThe interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
BAll of these choices are correct
CThe interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
DThe interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum

20. - E5A17

What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

SelectAnswer
AIt has no effect on impedance matching
BMatching range is increased
CMatching bandwidth is increased
DMatching bandwidth is decreased

21. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
BThe tangent and cotangent values
CThe sine and cosine values
DThe magnitude and phase of the point

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

SelectAnswer
AIn the same direction as the current
BIn a direction determined by the left-hand rule
CIn a direction opposite to the current
DIn all directions; omni-directional

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

SelectAnswer
AAny FET without a channel
BAny FET for which holes are the majority carriers
CAn FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
DAn FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

25. - E6B02

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

SelectAnswer
AMuch higher reverse voltage breakdown
BEnhanced carrier retention time
CLess forward voltage drop
DControlled reverse avalanche voltage

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

SelectAnswer
A4
B3
C1
D2

27. - E6D17

Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

SelectAnswer
ARF susceptance would increase
BMagnetic flux would increase with frequency
CTemporary changes of the core permeability could result
DHarmonics and distortion could result

28. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

SelectAnswer
ASilicon dioxide
BSilicon
CGallium nitride
DSilicon nitride

29. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

SelectAnswer
AA device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
BA device which measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
CA digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
DA device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source

30. - E7A07

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
BIt produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
CIt produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
DIt produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

31. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
ASignal distortion and excessive bandwidth
BReduced intermodulation products
CSignal inversion
DIncreased overall intelligibility

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

SelectAnswer
AIt is a low-pass filter
BIt is a band-pass filter
CIt is a high-pass filter
DIt is a notch filter

33. - E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?

SelectAnswer
ATo cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
BTo balance the low-voltage filament windings
CTo boost the amount of output current
DTo improve output voltage regulation

34. - E7E11

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

SelectAnswer
APhase detector
BDiscriminator
CPhase comparator
DProduct detector

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

SelectAnswer
AInstantaneous and Quenched
BInstantaneous and Quasi-stable
CInactive and Quiescent
DIn-phase and Quadrature

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

SelectAnswer
A7
B14
C0.07
D28

37. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

SelectAnswer
ANyquist limit noise
BSpurious signals at discrete frequencies
CBroadband noise
DDigital conversion noise

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

SelectAnswer
AHuman speech
BAll of these choices are correct
CVideo signals
DData

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
AA bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
BA digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
CA digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
DA frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

SelectAnswer
A0.5 kHz
B0.3 kHz
C0.1 Hz
D1.0 kHz

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

SelectAnswer
ASome types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
BThe signal can overpower interfering signals
CFaster transmission rate
DForeign language characters can be sent

42. - E9A18

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

SelectAnswer
AHalf-power bandwidth
BPower factor
CEffective radiated power
DApparent power

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

SelectAnswer
A30 degrees
B25 degrees
C50 degrees
D75 degrees

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
BA dipole configured to provide forward gain
CA dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
DA type of ground-plane antenna

45. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
ALower Q
BHigher losses
CGreater structural strength
DImproved radiation efficiency

46. - E9E06

What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system of a 3-element Yagi?

SelectAnswer
AA series capacitor
BPi-L-network
CA shunt inductor
DPi-network

47. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AAn inductive reactance
BA capacitive reactance
CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
DThe same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

48. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AReactance and voltage
BResistance and reactance
CResistance and voltage
DVoltage and impedance

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
BA large circularly polarized antenna
CA small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
DOne or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil

50. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

SelectAnswer
AReduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
BReduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
CLightning protection
DReduce received noise

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-1