US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A07

Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	12 meter band
B	60 meter band
C	17 meter band
D	30 meter band

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
B	The amateur station must cease operation
C	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
D	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Select	Answer
A	Under local control there is no control operator
B	Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
C	Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
D	Under automatic control there is no control operator

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
C	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
D	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

5. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

Select	Answer
A	They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
B	They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
C	They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
D	They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

7. - E2A10

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Select	Answer
A	Because the satellite is spinning
B	Because of ionospheric absorption
C	Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
D	Because of the Doppler Effect

8. - E2B05

Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
B	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
C	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
D	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	/R# where # is the district of the remote station
B	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
C	The ARRL section of the remote station
D	No additional indicator is required

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
B	It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
C	It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
B	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
C	Stations take turns on alternate days
D	It depends on the lunar phase

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the MUF is above 30 MHz
B	When the Moon is at perigee
C	When the Moon is at apogee
D	When the Moon is full

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around sunrise
B	Any time
C	Around sunset
D	Early evening

14. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

Select	Answer
A	Duration of long-delayed echoes
B	Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
C	Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
D	Geomagnetic field stability

15. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing in a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	False triggering occurs
B	False signals are displayed
C	All signals will have a DC offset
D	Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid

16. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	The relative time between measurements
B	Relative quality of the data
C	The port or ports at which measurements are made
D	Frequency order of the measurements

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces receiver sensitivity
B	It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
C	It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
D	It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
B	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
C	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
D	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals

19. - E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Select	Answer
A	Thunderstorms
B	Meteor showers
C	Solar radio frequency emissions
D	Geomagnetic storms

20. - E5A10

How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
B	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance times the resistance
C	Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
D	Reactance of the inductance times the reactance of the capacitance

21. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
B	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
C	Voltage and current are in phase
D	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

22. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Maidenhead grid
B	Faraday grid
C	Elliptical coordinates
D	Polar coordinates

23. - E5D10

How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B	By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
C	By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
D	By dividing the apparent power by the power factor

24. - E6A11

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

Select	Answer
A	2
B	1
C	6
D	3

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Zener
B	Point contact
C	Junction
D	Tunnel

26. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
B	The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
C	Input signals are stronger
D	The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance
B	Permeability
C	Thermal impedance
D	Reactivity

28. - E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

Select	Answer
A	44 dBm
B	-10 dB
C	2 dB
D	-20 dBm

29. - E6F01

What is photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
B	The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
C	The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
D	The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

30. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Select	Answer
A	Monostable multivibrator
B	T flip-flop
C	Astable multivibrator
D	J-K flip-flop

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Select	Answer
A	Output load resistor
B	Emitter bypass
C	Self bias
D	Fixed bias

32. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
B	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
C	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
D	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value

33. - E7D16

When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
B	To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
C	To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A balanced modulator on the oscillator
B	A reactance modulator on the oscillator
C	A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
D	A reactance modulator on the final amplifier

35. - E7F15

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

Select	Answer
A	FIR filters delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
B	FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
C	FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
D	All of these choices are correct

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
B	An echo caused by a long time delay
C	A reduction in high frequency response
D	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a quartz crystal
B	Through link coupling
C	Through a neutralizing capacitor
D	Through a tapped coil

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

Select	Answer
A	Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Improve accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input
D	Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	2.14
B	0.47
C	47
D	0.214

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 kHz
B	0.1 Hz
C	0.5 kHz
D	1.0 kHz

41. - E8D06

Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?

Select	Answer
A	High reflected power
B	Rapid signal fading
C	Strong ALC action
D	Harmonics on higher bands

42. - E9A02

What antenna has no gain in any direction?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic antenna
B	Half-wave dipole
C	Quarter-wave vertical
D	Yagi

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
B	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
C	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
D	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance

44. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

Select	Answer
A	The low-angle radiation increases
B	The high-angle radiation increases
C	Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
D	The low-angle radiation decreases

45. - E9D02

How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Select	Answer
A	Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
B	Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
C	Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
D	Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma match
B	The epsilon match
C	The delta match
D	The stub match

47. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	10 meters
C	71 meters
D	15 meters

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency
B	Points with constant reactance
C	SWR
D	Points with constant resistance

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
B	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
C	It should be one or more wavelengths long
D	It should be configured as a four-sided loop

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
B	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
C	Signal Amplification Rating
D	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1