US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
D	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

2. - E1B02

Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

Select	Answer
A	The location is in an ITU Zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
B	The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
C	The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
D	The location is near an area of political conflict

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B	A control operator must be present at the control point
C	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
D	A control operator need not be present at the control point

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
B	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
D	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
B	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
C	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
D	All these choices are correct

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Any licensed amateur operator
B	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Only Amateur Extra Class operators

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	435 MHz - 438 MHz
B	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
C	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
D	144 MHz - 146 MHz

8. - E2B08

Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
C	Frequency modulation of the video carrier
D	A separate VHF or UHF audio link

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
B	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
C	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
D	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station

10. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
B	Use of high speed CW or digital modes
C	All of these choices are correct
D	15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	Hellschreiber
C	PACTOR
D	RTTY

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the Moon is at perigee
B	When the MUF is above 30 MHz
C	When the Moon is at apogee
D	When the Moon is full

13. - E3B13

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

Select	Answer
A	Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
B	Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
C	The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
D	The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation

14. - E3C15

What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?

Select	Answer
A	Long-path propagation is occurring
B	Increased transequatorial propagation likely
C	A meteor ping
D	A solar flare has occurred

15. - E4A01

Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	Sample resolution
B	Input capacitance
C	Sampling rate
D	Input impedance

16. - E4B12

What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

Select	Answer
A	When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
B	When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
C	When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
D	The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will indicate the input impedance of the voltmeter

17. - E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

Select	Answer
A	100 Hz
B	2400 Hz
C	300 Hz
D	6000 Hz

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A Class D final amplifier
B	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
C	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
D	A Class C final amplifier

19. - E4E12

What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

Select	Answer
A	Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
B	Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
C	A DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
D	Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	7.12 kHz
B	7.12 MHz
C	23.5 MHz
D	23.5 kHz

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	The sign is reversed
D	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance

22. - E5C12

If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It contains resistance and inductive reactance
B	It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
C	It is equivalent to a pure resistance
D	It has to be a direct current circuit

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In the same direction as the current
B	In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
C	In all directions; omni-directional
D	In a direction opposite to the current

24. - E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The switching speed of the transistor
B	The change in collector current with respect to base current
C	The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
D	The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Zener
B	Tunnel
C	Point contact
D	Junction

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
B	Low power consumption
C	High speed operation
D	More efficient arithmetic operations

27. - E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Select	Answer
A	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage
B	Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
C	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
D	Increased conductivity in the presence of light

28. - E6E12

Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?

Select	Answer
A	Enhanced sensitivity to light
B	High-voltage insulating ability
C	Better dissipation of heat
D	To provide a low-pass frequency response

29. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
B	A lens and a photomultiplier
C	An LED and a phototransistor
D	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

30. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

Select	Answer
A	It adds two decimal numbers together
B	It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
C	It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
D	It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven segment LED display

31. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High power gain
B	Low bandwidth
C	Low input impedance
D	High filament voltage

32. - E7C07

What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

Select	Answer
A	A band-pass filter
B	An all-pass filter
C	A notch filter
D	A Pi-network filter

33. - E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	It provides D1 with current
B	It provides a constant load for the voltage source
C	It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
D	It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove third-order distortion products
B	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
C	For higher efficiency
D	To reduce impulse noise reception

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Processor latency
B	Sample width in bits
C	Sample clock phase noise
D	Sample rate

36. - E7G01

What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	1000 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low

37. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a capacitive divider
B	Through link coupling
C	Through a neutralizing capacitor
D	Through a tapped coil

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the modulating signal
B	The degree of carrier suppression
C	The amplifier gain
D	The characteristics of the modulating signal

39. - E8B09

What is meant by deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
C	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

40. - E8C03

When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous detector
B	It improves carrier suppression
C	This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the particular mode
D	All of these choices are correct

41. - E8D09

What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	-20 dB
B	+10 dB
C	+15 dB
D	-30 dB

42. - E9A08

What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
B	The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
C	Antenna length divided by the number of elements
D	The angle between the half-power radiation points

43. - E9B07

How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

Select	Answer
A	They are the same
B	The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
C	The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna
D	The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio

44. - E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An end fed dipole antenna
B	An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
C	A dipole constructed from zip cord
D	A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	SWR bandwidth increases
B	More common-mode current is present on the feed line
C	Gain is reduced
D	SWR bandwidth decreases

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The delta match
B	The omega match
C	The gamma match
D	The stub match

47. - E9F08

What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio
B	Surge impedance
C	Characteristic impedance
D	Velocity factor

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Free space radiation directivity chart
B	Smith chart
C	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
D	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A very sharp single null
B	High-radiation angle
C	A very sharp peak
D	Broad band response

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
B	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
C	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
D	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-3