US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
B	Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
C	The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
D	The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

Select	Answer
A	At least 53 dB below
B	At least 73 dB below
C	At least 63 dB below
D	At least 43 dB below

3. - E1C09

Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz
B	29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz
C	18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
D	24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz

4. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	2 meters
B	2 meters and 1.25 meters
C	6 meters and 2 meters
D	6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

5. - E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
B	Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
C	Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
D	Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
B	It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
C	It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
D	It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

7. - E2A02

What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From west to east
B	From east to west
C	From south to north
D	From north to south

8. - E2B08

Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation of the video carrier
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
D	A separate VHF or UHF audio link

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
B	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
C	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
D	To relay calls to and from a DX station

10. - E2D04

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	To relay messages between satellites
B	To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
C	To delay download of telemetry between satellites
D	To upload operational software for the transponder

11. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

Select	Answer
A	Fatal Error Correction
B	Final Error Correction
C	Forward Error Correction
D	First Error Correction

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	28 MHz - 148 MHz
B	220 MHz - 450 MHz
C	10 MHz - 14 MHz
D	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz

13. - E3B13

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

Select	Answer
A	The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
B	Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
C	Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
D	The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation

14. - E3C01

What does the term ray tracing describe in regard to radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
B	Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
C	Evaluating high voltage sources for X-Rays
D	The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A logic analyzer
B	A wattmeter
C	A time-domain reflectometer
D	A spectrum analyzer

16. - E4B08

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Low impedance input
B	Low reluctance input
C	High reluctance input
D	High impedance input

17. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

Select	Answer
A	15.210 MHz
B	14.755 MHz
C	14.445 MHz
D	13.845 MHz

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
B	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
C	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
D	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

19. - E4E01

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Ignition noise
C	Broadband white noise
D	Heterodyne interference

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	7.12 kHz
B	23.5 MHz
C	23.5 kHz
D	7.12 MHz

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	It is unchanged
D	The sign is reversed

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 7
B	Point 8
C	Point 3
D	Point 1

23. - E5D10

How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
B	By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
C	By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
D	By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor

24. - E6A14

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

Select	Answer
A	An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
B	They are both high impedance
C	An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
D	They are both low impedance

25. - E6B09

What is a common use for point contact diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a constant current source
B	As a high voltage rectifier
C	As a constant voltage source
D	As an RF detector

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
B	Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
C	Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
D	Logic devices that utilize ternary math

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance
B	Reactivity
C	Permeability
D	Thermal impedance

28. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
B	The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
C	Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
D	Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range

29. - E6F12

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	Protons
B	Electrons
C	Photons
D	Holes

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	An OR gate
B	A flip-flop
C	A multiplexer
D	An XOR gate

31. - E7B14

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
B	Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
C	The power transistor is at saturation or cut off most of the time, resulting in low power dissipation
D	Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals
B	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
C	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
D	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals

33. - E7D12

What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
B	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
C	Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
D	Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove third-order distortion products
B	To reduce impulse noise reception
C	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
D	For higher efficiency

35. - E7F07

What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?

Select	Answer
A	Converting analog signals to digital form
B	Converting digital signals to analog form
C	Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data
D	Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	38
B	76
C	1
D	0.03

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
B	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
C	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
D	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable

38. - E8A09

How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolution encode?

Select	Answer
A	8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
B	256
C	256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
D	8

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.214
B	0.47
C	2.14
D	47

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	4.8 kHz
B	5.76 kHz
C	9.6 kHz
D	15.36 kHz

41. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	Limits data speed
B	More difficult to copy
C	The generation of key clicks
D	The generation of RF harmonics

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It is essentially unaffected
B	It increases geometrically
C	It decreases
D	It increases arithmetically

43. - E9B04

What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Select	Answer
A	The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
B	Element spacing limits could be exceeded
C	Feed point impedance may become negative
D	The gain may change depending on frequency

44. - E9C15

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

Select	Answer
A	The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
B	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
C	The horizontal beam width increases with height
D	The horizontal beam width decreases with height

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR is reduced
B	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
C	The front-to-back ratio decreases
D	The front-to-back ratio increases

46. - E9E13

What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

Select	Answer
A	It is used to divide power equally between two 50 ohm loads while maintaining 50 ohm input impedance
B	It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
C	It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
D	It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source

47. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the generator output impedance
B	Very low impedance
C	The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
D	Very high impedance

48. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
B	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
C	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
D	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
B	A large circularly polarized antenna
C	A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
D	A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Only commercial transmitters
B	Only the most powerful transmitter
C	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
D	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-4