US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B	The control operators of all the stations in the system
C	The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
D	The control operator of the originating station

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
B	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
C	The amateur station must cease operation
D	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

3. - E1C10

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
B	Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C	Only beacon, repeater or space stations
D	Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
D	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In FCC Part 97
B	In a question pool maintained by the FCC
C	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
D	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
B	It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
C	It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
D	It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From east to west
B	From north to south
C	From south to north
D	From west to east

8. - E2B15

What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Select	Answer
A	Specific tone frequencies
B	A two-tone signal
C	Elapsed time
D	Specific tone amplitudes

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Select	Answer
A	Switch to a higher frequency HF band
B	Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
C	Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
D	Switch to a lower frequency HF band

10. - E2D14

What is one advantage of using JT65 coding?

Select	Answer
A	Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
B	Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
C	Easily copied by ear if necessary
D	The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio

11. - E2E05

Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK
B	RTTY
C	Winlink
D	PSK31

12. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

Select	Answer
A	Bodies of water
B	Forests
C	Urban areas
D	Mountain ranges

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Noon
B	Late at night
C	Morning
D	Afternoon or early evening

14. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

Select	Answer
A	Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
B	Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
C	An increase in the critical frequency
D	Higher levels of solar UV radiation

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A spectrum analyzer
B	A wattmeter
C	A logic analyzer
D	A time-domain reflectometer

16. - E4B16

Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?

Select	Answer
A	S22
B	S12
C	S11
D	S21

17. - E4C11

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz
B	4.8 kHz
C	4.2 kHz
D	2.4 kHz

18. - E4D11

Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
B	The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
C	Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
D	The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders

19. - E4E01

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Broadband white noise
B	Ignition noise
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Heterodyne interference

20. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
D	High, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	G
B	Y
C	B
D	X

22. - E5C09

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of the reactive and resistive components
B	The difference between the resistive and reactive components
C	Reactive component
D	Resistive component

23. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To avoid unwanted inductive reactance
C	To maintain component lifetime
D	To increase the thermal time constant

24. - E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
B	To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
C	To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
D	To protect the substrate from excessive voltages

25. - E6B09

What is a common use for point contact diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a high voltage rectifier
B	As an RF detector
C	As a constant voltage source
D	As a constant current source

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	2
C	1
D	4

27. - E6D09

What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Electrolytic capacitors
B	Butterworth filters
C	Ferrite beads
D	Steel-core toroids

28. - E6E12

Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?

Select	Answer
A	Better dissipation of heat
B	To provide a low-pass frequency response
C	Enhanced sensitivity to light
D	High-voltage insulating ability

29. - E6F13

What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?

Select	Answer
A	A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
B	A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
C	A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
D	A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	A clock
C	An "AND" gate
D	An "OR" gate

31. - E7B03

Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
B	A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
C	A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
D	A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a notch filter
B	It is a band-pass filter
C	It is a high-pass filter
D	It is a low-pass filter

33. - E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
B	To improve output voltage regulation
C	To balance the low-voltage filament windings
D	To boost the amount of output current

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
B	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
C	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
D	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	Inactive and Quiescent
B	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable
C	In-phase and Quadrature
D	Instantaneous and Quenched

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
B	As an audio filter in a receiver
C	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
D	For smoothing power supply output

37. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a capacitive divider
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through a tapped coil
D	Through link coupling

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Data
C	Video signals
D	Human speech

39. - E8B09

What is meant by deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
C	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
B	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
C	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
D	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

41. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	Phase compandored spread spectrum
B	Frequency hopping
C	Binary phase-shift keying
D	Direct sequence

42. - E9A12

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3.85 dB
B	8.15 dB
C	2.79 dB
D	6.0 dB

43. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

Select	Answer
A	24 dB
B	18 dB
C	12 dB
D	14 dB

44. - E9C13

What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

Select	Answer
A	It causes increased SWR
B	It reduces low-angle radiation
C	It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
D	It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
B	It might radiate harmonics
C	It must be neutralized
D	It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies

46. - E9E09

Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Double-bazooka match
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Hairpin match
D	Gamma match

47. - E9F16

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Select	Answer
A	Foam dielectric has higher velocity factor
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Foam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits
D	Foam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length

48. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna-length circles
B	Coaxial-length circles
C	Standing wave ratio circles
D	Radiation-pattern circles

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
B	It receives equally well in all directions
C	It has a bidirectional pattern
D	It is non-rotatable

50. - E0A03

Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of the choices are correct
B	Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
C	Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
D	Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations

Figure E6-5

Figure E9-1