US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A03

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
B	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
D	No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge

2. - E1B07

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1.0
B	2.0
C	0.5
D	3.0

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
B	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
C	A control operator need not be present at the control point
D	A control operator must be present at the control point

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
B	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
D	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites

5. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum passing score of 70%
B	Minimum passing score of 74%
C	Minimum passing score of 77%
D	Minimum passing score of 80%

6. - E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	To provide additional spectrum for personal use
B	To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
C	To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
D	To provide for experimental amateur communications

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From south to north
B	From west to east
C	From east to west
D	From north to south

8. - E2B10

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	15 KHz
B	10 KHz
C	20 KHz
D	3 KHz

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
C	To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
D	To separate the calling stations from the DX station

10. - E2D14

What is one advantage of using JT65 coding?

Select	Answer
A	Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
B	The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
C	Easily copied by ear if necessary
D	Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	Hellschreiber
B	AMTOR
C	RTTY
D	PACTOR

12. - E3A15

What is an electromagnetic wave?

Select	Answer
A	A wave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
B	A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
C	A wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles to each other
D	A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	6 meters to 2 meters
B	160 meters to 40 meters
C	160 meters to 10 meters
D	30 meters to 10 meters

14. - E3C03

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?

Select	Answer
A	Polar paths
B	Transequatorial propagation
C	NVIS
D	Sporadic-E

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Bit error rate tester
B	Logic analyzer
C	Modulation monitor
D	Network analyzer

16. - E4B02

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It can display results directly in Smith chart format
B	It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
C	It provides an excellent match under all conditions
D	It is very precise in obtaining a signal null

17. - E4C02

Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

Select	Answer
A	A front-end filter or pre-selector
B	A narrow IF filter
C	A properly adjusted product detector
D	A notch filter

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Quieting
B	Cross-modulation interference
C	Squelch gain rollback
D	Desensitization

19. - E4E01

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Ignition noise
B	Broadband white noise
C	Heterodyne interference
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - E5A17

What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Matching bandwidth is increased
B	Matching bandwidth is decreased
C	Matching range is increased
D	It has no effect on impedance matching

21. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	220 seconds
B	110 seconds
C	55 seconds
D	440 seconds

22. - E5C10

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?

Select	Answer
A	Reactive component
B	Resistive component
C	The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D	The difference between the resistive and reactive components

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	141.4 Watts
B	70.7 Watts
C	200 Watts
D	100 Watts

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
B	Any FET without a channel
C	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
D	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	A sub-harmonic pump signal
B	Forward DC bias current
C	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
D	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal

26. - E6C14

What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A PGA contains its own internal power supply
B	Complex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Many similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types

27. - E6D01

How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

Select	Answer
A	141 turns
B	35 turns
C	13 turns
D	79 turns

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Virtual lead mounting
B	Surface mount
C	Stripped lead
D	Direct soldering

29. - E6F12

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	Electrons
B	Protons
C	Photons
D	Holes

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"

31. - E7B15

What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Use a resistor in series with the emitter
B	Select transistors with high beta
C	Neutralization
D	All of these choices are correct

32. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
B	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
C	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
D	Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

33. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

Select	Answer
A	Prevention of battery undercharge
B	Matching of day and night charge rates
C	Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge
D	Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
B	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
C	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
D	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

35. - E7F15

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

Select	Answer
A	FIR filters delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
B	FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
C	FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
D	All of these choices are correct

36. - E7G07

What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	24
B	94
C	0.21
D	47

37. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

Select	Answer
A	Eliminating noise on the oscillator's power supply
B	Use of NP0 capacitors
C	Mechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
D	Using the oscillator only for CW and digital signals

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave
B	A sine wave
C	A sawtooth wave
D	A cosine wave

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
B	A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
C	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
D	A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies

40. - E8C10

What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits

Select	Answer
A	It facilitates error detection
B	It has more possible states than simple binary
C	It increases security
D	It has more resolution than simple binary

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
B	Faster transmission rate
C	Foreign language characters can be sent
D	The signal can overpower interfering signals

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
B	To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
C	To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
D	To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

43. - E9B15

What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	28 dB
B	24 dB
C	3 dB
D	15 dB

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A multi-band trap antenna
B	A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
C	A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
D	A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line

45. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Near the center of the vertical radiator
B	As close to the transmitter as possible
C	As low as possible on the vertical radiator
D	At a voltage node

46. - E9E09

Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hairpin match
B	Double-bazooka match
C	Gamma match
D	All of these choices are correct

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very high impedance
B	Very low impedance
C	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D	The same as the input impedance to the generator

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
B	Free space radiation directivity chart
C	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
D	Smith chart

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
C	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
D	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions

50. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce received noise
B	Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
C	Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
D	Lightning protection

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3