US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Single sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
B	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	QSOs in progress always have priority
D	Nets always have priority

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The speed at which the CQ was sent
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	A slow speed until contact is established
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Identification of out of band operation
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	DSB
C	LSB
D	USB

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	A well-defined echo might be heard
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	VOX operation

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
B	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
C	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
C	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D	Connect all equipment grounds together

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	400 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	1.4 watts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	33.3 ohms
D	0.33 ohms

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
D	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	Beyond cutoff
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Reverse Biased

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	Balanced modulator
C	IF filter
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency shift keying
C	Frequency modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
B	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
C	The year in which PSK31 was invented
D	The version of the PSK protocol

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	0:0
C	2:1
D	50:50

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	24 feet
C	16 feet
D	32 feet

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Front to back ratio decreases
C	Gain increases
D	Front to side ratio decreases

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

Figure G7-1