US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency end
D	The lower frequency end

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	300 feet
C	50 feet
D	100 feet

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Single sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
B	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3700 - 3750 kHz
B	3570 - 3600 kHz
C	3775 - 3825 kHz
D	3500 - 3525 kHz

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
D	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Receiver
C	Transmitter
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Clearly audible speech
D	Distorted speech

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
D	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Balanced modulator
C	Mixer
D	Detector

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Angle convolution
B	Phase modulation
C	Phase convolution
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	16 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	3 kHz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It terminates the contact
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It requests a change in transmitting protocol

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	As high as possible above the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
D	At the center of the antenna

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB lower
B	3 dB higher
C	About the same
D	2.54 dB higher

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
C	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring