US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.250 MHz
B	7.500 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	40.500 MHz

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
D	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
B	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only when transmitting in RACES
B	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C	At any time during an actual emergency
D	Only on authorized HF frequencies

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Low power transmit operation
D	Remote piloted model control

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	The position of the Moon in its orbit
C	The Sun's rotation on its axis
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
C	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
D	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope uses less power
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Input impedance is much lower
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
C	Connect all equipment grounds together
D	Use a ground loop for best conductivity

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
C	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A Pi-network
C	A length of transmission line
D	A transformer

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	346 volts
C	245 volts
D	173 volts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	540 volts
B	2370 volts
C	5.9 volts
D	26.7 volts

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	It is resistant to radiation damage
B	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
C	The stored information cannot be changed once written
D	It is resistant to high temperatures

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Relatively high power output
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/3 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	As close to one wavelength as possible
C	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	The resistance of solder is too high
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

Figure G7-1