US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2560 kHz
B	3560 kHz
C	1855 kHz
D	3650 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The Control Operator
B	The FCC
C	The ITU
D	The IEEE

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Extra, General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	General only

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It provides more power output
C	It allows "hands free" operation
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
B	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
C	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
D	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
C	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
D	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B	Microwave communications become unstable
C	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
D	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	A well-defined echo might be heard
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna
D	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced dip
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An ammeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A signal generator

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
C	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
D	The inverse of resistance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	0.07 millihenrys
D	70 millihenrys

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
B	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	DE-9
C	PL-259
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To limit the modulation index

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1 to 1
D	5 to 1

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground reflection losses
B	Shorter Radials
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower feed point impedance

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
D	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
C	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	All of these choices are correct