US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.500 MHz
B	40.200 MHz
C	7.500 MHz
D	7.250 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Identifying net frequencies
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a RACES net control operator

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
C	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3700 - 3750 kHz
B	3500 - 3525 kHz
C	3775 - 3825 kHz
D	3570 - 3600 kHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communications are disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
D	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is overhead
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun has just set
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter signal is distorted
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Frequent connection timeouts
D	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
B	The radiation pattern of an antenna
C	The radiation resistance of an antenna
D	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
B	Connect all equipment grounds together
C	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
D	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To increase the "Q" of the antenna

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
B	Increase the power output of the first circuit
C	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert an LC network between the two circuits

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It equals the average of each branch current

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1733 picofarads
B	576.9 nanofarads
C	3583 picofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Control grid
C	Heater
D	Screen Grid

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for RF amplification

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	Quartz crystals
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Relatively high power output

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient bandwidth

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Mixer
C	Pre-emphasis network
D	Multiplier

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Volumetric
C	Binary
D	Varicode

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	2.5:1
C	1.25:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About 2/3 as much
B	About twice as much
C	About the same
D	About 1.5 times as much

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	As close to one wavelength as possible
C	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
D	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
B	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis