US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
B	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
B	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
C	Increase power to overcome interference
D	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Stop sending
D	Zero beat my signal

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An omnidirectional antenna
B	An isotropic antenna
C	A directional antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
B	Another name for the American sunspot number
C	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
D	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path skip
C	Faraday rotation
D	Sporadic-E skip

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The transmitter signal is distorted
C	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
D	Frequent connection timeouts

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance of an antenna
B	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
C	The radiation pattern of an antenna
D	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To provide adequate grounding
B	To remove noise from received signals
C	To increase antenna gain
D	To increase antenna bandwidth

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	3200 watts
D	200 watts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	300 to 1
B	12.2 to 1
C	24.4 to 1
D	150 to 1

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	DE-9
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microcontroller
B	Charge-coupled device
C	Window comparator
D	Phase detector

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Relatively high power output

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Cancellation
B	Heterodyning
C	Synthesizing
D	Phase inverting

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and Space
B	Dot and Dash
C	High and Low
D	On and Off

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
C	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
D	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It has poor directivity
C	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
D	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All of these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the two wires carrying voltage
B	All wires
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the neutral wire

Figure G7-1