US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	30 meters
C	60 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
B	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	All of these choices are correct
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Very high fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
C	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
D	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
B	60 meters and 40 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
D	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
B	The communication is during a sunspot maximum
C	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Linearity

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.181 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
C	The inverse of resistance
D	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	1.00
C	2.00
D	0.707

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 to 1
B	300 to 1
C	24.4 to 1
D	150 to 1

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
C	The capacitor could overheat and explode
D	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	High power handling capability
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for RF amplification

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By using direct signal phasing
B	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
C	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
D	By differential spurious phasing

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Excessive bandwidth

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using the varicode character set
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	500 and 750 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	80 and 100 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	32 feet
B	16 feet
C	24 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has poor directivity
B	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its impedance is too low for effective matching

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly