US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
D	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
B	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
C	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
B	At any time during an actual emergency
C	Only on authorized HF frequencies
D	Only when transmitting in RACES

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I acknowledge receipt
B	Send slower
C	We have worked before
D	We have already confirmed by card

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	All of these choices are correct
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They pass through the ionosphere

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
B	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
C	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Splatter
B	Excessive background pickup
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photosynthesis
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photovoltaic conversion
D	Photon emission

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	A transformer
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A length of transmission line

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	5000 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	625 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.47 microfarads
B	4.7 microfarads
C	47,000 microfarads
D	47 microfarads

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Tight tolerance

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	Filter
C	IF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Viterbi

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	6:1
B	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
C	3:1
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	About 1.5 times as much
C	About 2/3 as much
D	About twice as much

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 20
D	AWG number 12