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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

SelectAnswer
A3900 kHz
B3750 kHz
C4005 kHz
D1875 kHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

SelectAnswer
AIn conformance with the rules of the IARU
BAll of these choices are correct
CIn conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
DIn conformance with Amateur Radio custom

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A56 kilobaud
B300 baud
C19.6 kilobaud
D1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

SelectAnswer
AWhenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
BA special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
CWhenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
DWhenever you operate on any amateur frequency

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BWhen a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
CWhen using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
DWhen operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

SelectAnswer
AOnly one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
BOnly one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
CSSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
DSSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

SelectAnswer
AWhen they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
BWhen the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
CWhen they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
DOnly when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AA slow speed until contact is established
BThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
CThe speed at which the CQ was sent
DAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AYou must keep a record of all third party traffic
BIf you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
CYou must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
DYou must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

SelectAnswer
ATransmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
BPut the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
CUnplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
DSend the message: "Is this frequency in use?"

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AOnly at the minimum point of the solar cycle
BAt the summer solstice
CAt any point in the solar cycle
DOnly at the maximum point of the solar cycle

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

SelectAnswer
A180 miles
B2,500 miles
C1,200 miles
D12,000 miles

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AShort-path skip
BScatter
CSporadic-E skip
DFaraday rotation

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

SelectAnswer
ATo permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
BTo avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
CTo change frequency rapidly
DTo tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AConnecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
BPermanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
CThe analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
DStrong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

SelectAnswer
AYou receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
BAn item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
CThe SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
DYou receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases peak power
BIt increases average power
CIt reduces intermodulation distortion
DIt reduces harmonic distortion

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow automatic band changing
BTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
CTo allow remote tuning
DTo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

SelectAnswer
AThe inverse of resistance
BThe opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
CThe electric charge stored by a capacitor
DThe force of repulsion between two similar electric fields

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A24 watts
B60 watts
C2.4 watts
D6 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

SelectAnswer
A47,000 microfarads
B47 microfarads
C0.47 microfarads
D4.7 microfarads

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

SelectAnswer
AAs long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
BNever
CWhen the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
DWhen a constant current charger is used

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

SelectAnswer
AA microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
BA low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
CA low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
DA computer on a single integrated circuit

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BFewer circuit components are required
CFaster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
DHigh frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

SelectAnswer
A6
B8
C3
D16

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
ARelatively high power output
BWide tuning range and no need for band switching
CRelatively low power consumption
DVariable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe bandwidth of the modulated signal
BThe waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
CThe carrier frequency that contains the signal
DSpurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
ALower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
BBandwidth is always half the symbol rate
CSymbol rate and bandwidth are not related
DHigher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

SelectAnswer
AOn and Off
BMark and Space
CDot and Dash
DHigh and Low

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

SelectAnswer
AAttenuation decreases
BAttenuation increases
CAttenuation is independent of frequency
DAttenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

SelectAnswer
AIt steadily decreases
BIt steadily increases
CIt is unaffected by the location of the feed point
DIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
BThe direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
CThe point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
DThe magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

SelectAnswer
AThey have poor harmonic rejection
BThey present low impedance on all design frequencies
CThey must be fed with open wire line
DThey must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

SelectAnswer
AIts duty cycle
BAll of these choices are correct
CIts power density
DIts frequency

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

SelectAnswer
AInsure that the generator is not grounded
BInsure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
CDisconnect the incoming utility power feed
DAll of these choices are correct