US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	28.550 MHz
C	28.350 MHz
D	All of these choices are correct

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General only
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	There is interference on the frequency

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"
B	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
C	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
D	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
D	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A vertical antenna
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	RF interference

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced mixing
B	Bandpass tuning
C	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
D	A noise limiter

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak value

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Mutual inductance
D	Displacement current coupling

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
B	It will stay the same
C	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
D	It will become time dependent

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	Type N
C	RCA Phono
D	PL-259

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By differential spurious phasing
B	By using direct signal phasing
C	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
D	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	21 feet

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines