US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	12 meters
C	160 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A distress call
B	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
C	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D	A general call for any station

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
D	Only a RACES net control operator

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D	Date and time of contact

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
C	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
D	14.150 - 14.225 MHz

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
D	Ripples in the ionosphere

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E skip
B	Short-path skip
C	Faraday rotation
D	Scatter

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C	The radio is operating at half power
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.181 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
B	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
C	The inverse of resistance
D	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.00
C	2.00
D	1.414

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henrys
B	30 millihenrys
C	3.3 millihenrys
D	0.30 henrys

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively high power output
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
D	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	50:1
C	5:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged