US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14405 kHz
B	14105 kHz
C	14305 kHz
D	14005 kHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
C	A beacon station may not use automatic control
D	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General only
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	Date and time of contact
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just above the LUF
D	Select a frequency just below the MUF

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To provide adequate grounding
C	To remove noise from received signals
D	To increase antenna bandwidth

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
C	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.344 to 14.347 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
B	Increase the power output of the first circuit
C	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert an LC network between the two circuits

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	1000 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	DE-9
B	Type SMA
C	Type N
D	PL-259

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Product detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	8
C	5
D	The number varies

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	50 and 75 ohms
D	500 and 750 ohms

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases
B	It stays the same
C	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
D	It increases

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	It has poor directivity
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its impedance is too low for effective matching

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground