US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2560 kHz
B	3650 kHz
C	3560 kHz
D	1855 kHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
B	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
C	To control a space station
D	During a declared communications emergency

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	12 years
B	21 years
C	There is no age limit
D	18 years

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
B	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	14 days

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Path distance and location
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
C	The E-region is not present
D	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	An oscilloscope
D	A wavemeter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To remove noise from received signals
B	To provide adequate grounding
C	To increase antenna bandwidth
D	To increase antenna gain

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 watts
B	Approximately 61 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A resistor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A resistor in parallel

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Read Only Memory
B	Resistor Operated Memory
C	Random Operational Memory
D	Resistant to Overload Memory

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Audio fidelity is improved
B	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Simpler receiving equipment can be used

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The entire file has been received correctly
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
B	3:1
C	1.5:1
D	6:1

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground reflection losses
B	Shorter Radials
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Lower radiation resistance

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
C	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
D	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	All of these choices are correct
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The generator must be insulated from ground