US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	All three regions
B	Region 3
C	Region 1
D	Region 2

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are not permitted
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets always have priority
C	QSOs in progress always have priority
D	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	A slow speed until contact is established

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	An omnidirectional antenna

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Skywarn
B	Winlink
C	RTTY
D	ARES

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
B	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The D layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	RF interference
C	Standing wave ratio
D	Radio wave propagation

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	A ground loop
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Overheating of ground straps

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Splatter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow automatic band changing
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To allow remote tuning
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	47 microfarads
B	0.47 microfarads
C	4.7 microfarads
D	47,000 microfarads

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
B	Its peak and valley current points
C	Its enhancement and depletion modes
D	Its saturation and cutoff regions

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	High power handling capability
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
B	By using direct signal phasing
C	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
D	By differential spurious phasing

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient bandwidth

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Pre-emphasis network
C	Mixer
D	Reactance modulator

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By using the varicode character set
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	50 and 75 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	2.54 dB higher
B	3 dB lower
C	3 dB higher
D	About the same

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Directional transmitting for low HF bands

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	All of these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
D	Unground the base of the tower

Figure G7-1