US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	17 meters

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
B	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party is a licensed amateur
D	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
B	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
C	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
D	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Between 150 and 500 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	Approximately 10 kHz
D	Approximately 3 kHz

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	100 percent copy
D	Key clicks

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of out of band operation
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long Path propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Time of day and season
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	Antenna and feed line
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Receiver

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
B	No current can flow through the circuit
C	The electrical load is shorted
D	The source delivers minimum power to the load

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	20.5 percent

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.7 volts
D	0.3 volts

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Product detector
C	RF oscillator
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency conversion

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	500 Hz

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	4:1
D	1:4

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
B	It increases
C	It stays the same
D	It decreases

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	2/3 wavelength
B	1/3 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its frequency
C	Its power density
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

Figure G7-1