US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14405 kHz
B	14105 kHz
C	14005 kHz
D	14305 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	They are not permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
B	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	All of these choices are correct

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of different call signs

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	CW
C	DSB
D	USB

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point in the solar cycle
B	At the summer solstice
C	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
D	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
C	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The communication is during a sunspot maximum
B	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
C	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
D	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
B	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
D	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A Pi-network
C	A transformer
D	A length of transmission line

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	34 volts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	24.4 to 1
B	300 to 1
C	150 to 1
D	12.2 to 1

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A varistor
B	A tunnel diode
C	A field effect transistor
D	A bipolar transistor

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-11
B	Octal
C	DB-25
D	PL-259

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class AB
C	Class B
D	Class A

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Mixer
C	Detector
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	80 and 100 ohms

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
B	There is no change in polarization
C	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized
D	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out of band operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	60 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	100 amperes