US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency end
C	The lower frequency end
D	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Technician only
C	General only
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
D	Increase power to overcome interference

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The speed at which the CQ was sent
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	A slow speed until contact is established

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	DSB
C	USB
D	LSB

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	All of these choices are correct.

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
D	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To slow down received CW signals for better copy

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a receiver
B	In an SWR bridge
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In a transmitter

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	5000 watts
C	625 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	0.07 millihenrys
D	70 millihenrys

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	Tight tolerance
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High capacitance for given volume

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Digital
C	Analog
D	MMIC

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
B	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
C	The version of the PSK protocol
D	The year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Decibels per 1000 feet
C	Ohms per 1000 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/3 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A broad-band mobile antenna
C	A helical antenna for space reception
D	A very long and low directional receiving antenna

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	All of these choices are correct
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened