US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 1
C	All three regions
D	Region 3

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
B	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
C	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	30 days
C	365 days
D	180 days

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 to 6 kHz
B	1 to 3 kHz
C	5 to 50 Hz
D	150 to 500 Hz

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
C	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A directional antenna
C	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
D	An omnidirectional antenna

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
B	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
C	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communications are disturbed

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Path distance and location

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	VOX operation

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Receiver
D	Antenna and feed line

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	Splatter
C	Distorted speech
D	All of these choices are correct

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source delivers minimum power to the load
B	The electrical load is shorted
C	No current can flow through the circuit
D	The source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	200 watts
C	3200 watts
D	0.5 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	175 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	150 ohms

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its saturation and cutoff regions
B	Its peak and valley current points
C	Its enhancement and depletion modes
D	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Resistor Operated Memory
B	Read Only Memory
C	Resistant to Overload Memory
D	Random Operational Memory

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
B	Relatively high power output
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Intermediate interference
C	Quadrature noise
D	Mixer interference

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and Space
B	Dot and Dash
C	High and Low
D	On and Off

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:2
C	1:4
D	4:1

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	32 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	24 feet

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	All of these choices are correct

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It has poor directivity
C	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
D	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	All wires
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the two wires carrying voltage

Figure G7-1