US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The Control Operator
C	The ITU
D	The FCC

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
C	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
D	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
D	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Band and/or frequency of the contact

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Long Path propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
B	At any point in the solar cycle
C	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D	At the summer solstice

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is rising
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
D	Where the Sun has just set

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
B	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
C	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
C	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	24 volts
C	34 volts
D	8.5 volts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	0.07 millihenrys
D	70 millihenrys

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its saturation and cutoff regions
B	Its peak and valley current points
C	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
D	Its enhancement and depletion modes

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Longer life
C	Faster response time
D	Lower power consumption

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Twice the transmission line impedance
B	Substantially higher
C	Substantially lower
D	About the same

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B	JT9 and JT65
C	RTTY
D	Clover

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Larger diameter elements

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All of these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Unground the base of the tower
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	All of these choices are correct