US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	All of these choices are correct
C	28.020 MHz
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
D	Monitor the frequency before transmitting

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	All of these choices are correct
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only on authorized HF frequencies
B	At any time during an actual emergency
C	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
D	Only when transmitting in RACES

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	I am quitting for the day

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
D	Microwave communications become unstable

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The E layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
C	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
D	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A multimeter
B	A Q meter
C	An antenna noise bridge
D	A field strength meter

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
D	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
C	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1060 watts
D	1500 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Longer switching times
B	Lower inductance
C	Higher breakdown voltage
D	Lower capacitance

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microprocessor
B	Frequency Counter
C	Linear voltage regulator
D	NAND Gate

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	3
C	16
D	6

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Balanced modulator
C	Detector
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C	Audio fidelity is improved
D	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	BFO
B	Discriminator
C	VFO
D	Mixer

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and Dash
B	On and Off
C	Mark and Space
D	High and Low

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Closer element spacing
D	Tapered-diameter elements

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty