US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14305 kHz
B	14405 kHz
C	14105 kHz
D	14005 kHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	A beacon station may not use automatic control
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
D	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	365 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
B	At any time during an actual emergency
C	Only when transmitting in RACES
D	Only on authorized HF frequencies

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
B	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
C	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
D	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
C	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	An antenna noise bridge
B	A field strength meter
C	A multimeter
D	A Q meter

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Connect all ground conductors to a single point

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To increase the "Q" of the antenna

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
B	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
C	Increase the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert an LC network between the two circuits

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	High voltage
C	Long life
D	High discharge current

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Octal
B	DB-25
C	RJ-11
D	PL-259

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	8
C	16
D	3

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Product detector
C	RF oscillator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The entire file has been received correctly
D	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	1 to 1
C	5 to 1
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	All of these choices are correct
C	High forward gain
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C	Wear a radiation badge
D	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	The resistance of solder is too high