US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	All of these choices are correct
C	28.350 MHz
D	28.550 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
C	Identifying net frequencies
D	Observation of propagation and reception

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English, Spanish, French, or German
B	English only
C	The language being used for the contact
D	Any language recognized by the United Nations

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only on authorized HF frequencies
B	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C	Only when transmitting in RACES
D	At any time during an actual emergency

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Sending without error
D	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
C	An omnidirectional antenna
D	An isotropic antenna

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	The Sun's rotation on its axis

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
B	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Faraday rotation
C	Sporadic-E skip
D	Short-path skip

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	VOX operation
C	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A wavemeter
D	A sidetone monitor

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a transmitter
B	In a receiver
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	No current can flow through the circuit
B	The source delivers minimum power to the load
C	The electrical load is shorted
D	The source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	5000 watts
C	625 watts
D	8.75 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	0.30 microfarads

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	Tight tolerance
D	High capacitance for a given volume

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	High power handling capability
D	Low power consumption

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	An analog to digital converter
C	A digital processor chip
D	All of the these choices are correct

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Audio fidelity is improved
B	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B	JT9 and JT65
C	Clover
D	RTTY

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front to back ratio decreases
B	Front to side ratio decreases
C	Gain increases
D	Beamwidth increases

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
C	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
D	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	100 amperes
B	60 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	30 amperes