US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	All three regions
B	Region 1
C	Region 2
D	Region 3

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
C	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It allows "hands free" operation

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
D	Increase power to overcome interference

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am quitting for the day
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am ready to receive messages

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	Date and time of contact
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
B	The communication is during a sunspot maximum
C	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To increase antenna bandwidth
C	To remove noise from received signals
D	To provide adequate grounding

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
D	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	1060 watts
C	2120 watts
D	530 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Beyond cutoff
B	Forward Biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Reverse Biased

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	All of these choices are correct

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The number of stages in the counter
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	Mark and Space
C	On and Off
D	Dot and Dash

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation increases

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	100 amperes
C	60 amperes
D	15 amperes