US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.500 MHz
B	7.500 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	7.250 MHz

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
C	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
D	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Extra, General and Technician
B	Technician only
C	General only
D	General and Technician

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
B	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
C	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
B	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
C	A distress call
D	A general call for any station

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
B	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
C	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
D	Increase power to overcome interference

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Long Path propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
B	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
B	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Because it is the highest ionospheric region

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
C	Frequent connection timeouts
D	The transmitter signal is distorted

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance of an antenna
B	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
C	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D	The radiation pattern of an antenna

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using resistor wire
B	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
C	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To reduce power supply ripple

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1500 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1060 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	47 microfarads
B	4.7 microfarads
C	0.47 microfarads
D	47,000 microfarads

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A tunnel diode
B	A varistor
C	A bipolar transistor
D	A field effect transistor

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It requires ambient or back lighting
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It has a wide viewing angle
D	It offers a wide dynamic range

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Relatively low power consumption
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Frequency drift
D	Insufficient bandwidth

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	Dot and Dash
C	Mark and Space
D	On and Off

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
B	It increases
C	It stays the same
D	It decreases

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	100 amperes
B	60 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	15 amperes

Figure G7-1