US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	All of these choices are correct
C	28.020 MHz
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	General and Technician
C	General only
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When messages are not encrypted

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
B	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
C	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
D	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
B	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
D	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising Sun
B	Toward the north
C	180 degrees from its short-path heading
D	Along the gray line

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
D	14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communications are disturbed
C	HF communications are improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A Q meter
B	A field strength meter
C	A multimeter
D	An antenna noise bridge

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It equals the average of each branch current
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	3583 picofarads
D	1733 picofarads

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	At right angles to each other
B	Interleaved
C	Parallel to each other
D	In line

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It offers a wide dynamic range
B	It has a wide viewing angle
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It requires ambient or back lighting

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Quartz crystals
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Double sideband

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	11 feet
C	21 feet
D	16 feet

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front to side ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Front to back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Its power density
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty