US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	28.550 MHz
C	28.350 MHz
D	All of these choices are correct

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
D	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
C	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	Any language recognized by the United Nations
B	The language being used for the contact
C	English only
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
B	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
C	A distress call
D	A general call for any station

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Between 150 and 500 Hz
B	Approximately 10 kHz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive messages
B	I am quitting for the day
C	You are sending too fast
D	There is interference on the frequency

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	Date and time of contact

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
B	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	Ripples in the ionosphere

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A vertical antenna
D	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A wavemeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A sidetone monitor

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
B	To the battery using resistor wire
C	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
C	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 12 dB

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenrys
B	0.30 henrys
C	3.3 millihenrys
D	3.3 henrys

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
C	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
D	The capacitor could overheat and explode

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Better suited for RF amplification

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Quartz crystals

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The number of stages in the counter

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Product detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
B	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	131 feet
C	263 feet
D	42 feet

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
C	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
D	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It cools body tissue
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It heats body tissue

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
B	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
C	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D	Danger of engine over torque