US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	300 feet

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
B	Countries in ITU Region 1
C	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
D	Countries in ITU Region 2

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
B	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Stop sending
D	Zero beat my signal

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising Sun
B	180 degrees from its short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are improved
B	HF communications are disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
B	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
C	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The D layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	SWR Bridge
B	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
C	Q Multiplier
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Received signal strength
C	Conductance
D	Impedance

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon emission
B	Photosynthesis
C	Photovoltaic conversion
D	Photon decomposition

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The RMS value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak value

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	26.7 volts
B	2370 volts
C	5.9 volts
D	540 volts

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its saturation and cutoff regions
B	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
C	Its peak and valley current points
D	Its enhancement and depletion modes

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It offers a wide dynamic range
B	It requires ambient or back lighting
C	It has a wide viewing angle
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class A
C	Class B
D	Class C

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	IF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	RF amplifier

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single sideband

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Image response
C	Intermediate interference
D	Quadrature noise

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
B	The entire file has been received correctly
C	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Shorten the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/3 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To permit multiband operation
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis