US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	20 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets always have priority
C	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
D	QSOs in progress always have priority

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	HF communications are disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E skip
B	Scatter
C	Short-path skip
D	Faraday rotation

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two swept frequency tones

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Received signal strength

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1500 watts
C	1060 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	DE-9
C	Type N
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An analog mixer
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Discriminator
C	IF amplifier
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
C	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The connection is dropped
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	5 to 1
C	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	1 to 1

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	32 feet
C	24 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	There is no change in polarization
B	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
C	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
D	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Directional transmitting for low HF bands

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	The resistance of solder is too high
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection