US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.500 MHz
B	40.200 MHz
C	7.250 MHz
D	7.500 MHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
B	All of these choices are correct
C	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
D	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Phase modulation

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	A slow speed until contact is established

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Long Path propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
B	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To facilitate computer interface
D	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Linearity

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass inductor
D	Bypass capacitor

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.647 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	346 volts
B	173 volts
C	692 volts
D	245 volts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	3.3 millihenrys
C	30 millihenrys
D	3.3 henrys

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Heater
C	Trigger electrode
D	Screen Grid

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Twice the transmission line impedance
B	Substantially lower
C	About the same
D	Substantially higher

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency shift keying

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Pre-emphasis network
B	Multiplier
C	Mixer
D	Reactance modulator

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Footer
B	Preamble
C	Directory
D	Header

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	2.5:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	1.25:1

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Its duty cycle
C	Its frequency
D	Its power density

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area