US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	17 meters

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	A beacon station may not use automatic control
B	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
C	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	The language being used for the contact
B	English only
C	Any language recognized by the United Nations
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Between 150 and 500 Hz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Approximately 3 kHz

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Date and time of contact
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	Q Multiplier
C	SWR Bridge
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
B	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
C	The radiation pattern of an antenna
D	The radiation resistance of an antenna

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To increase antenna bandwidth
C	To provide adequate grounding
D	To remove noise from received signals

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Splatter
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Distorted speech
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
C	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenrys
B	3.3 henrys
C	30 millihenrys
D	0.30 henrys

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
B	To reduce stray capacitance
C	To increase the beta of the transistor
D	To improve the power dissipation capability

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Octal
B	DB-25
C	RJ-11
D	PL-259

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Discriminator
C	BFO
D	VFO

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
B	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
C	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	24 feet
C	8 feet
D	32 feet

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/3 wavelength
B	2/3 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with an S meter
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 12