US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	All three regions
C	Region 3
D	Region 2

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	To control a space station
B	During a declared communications emergency
C	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Robotically controlled station
B	Fail-safe digital station
C	Locally controlled station
D	Automatically controlled digital station

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
C	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	There is interference on the frequency

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun has just set
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
D	To prevent stations from interfering with one another

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Linearity

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Mutual inductance

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
B	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
C	It will become time dependent
D	It will stay the same

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Resistor Operated Memory
B	Random Operational Memory
C	Read Only Memory
D	Resistant to Overload Memory

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	Quartz crystals
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class AB
C	Class A
D	Class B

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	All of the these choices are correct
C	A digital processor chip
D	A digital to analog converter

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Excessive bandwidth

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B	Clover
C	RTTY
D	JT9 and JT65

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
B	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
C	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
D	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	All of these choices are correct
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its power density
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	100 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	60 amperes