US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
B	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
B	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Federal Communications Commission

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
B	Information must be exchanged in English
C	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress always have priority
B	Nets always have priority
C	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	Date and time of contact
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Send QRL in Morse code

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	Microwave communications become unstable
D	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
D	A vertical antenna

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ohmmeter
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Splatter
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using resistor wire
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	173 volts
C	346 volts
D	245 volts

21. - G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	10000 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The capacitor could overheat and explode
D	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	Beyond cutoff
C	Reverse Biased
D	At the Zener voltage

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the counter
D	The number of stages in the divider

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	An analog to digital converter
C	A digital processor chip
D	All of the these choices are correct

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using the varicode character set
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 100 feet
B	Decibels per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1000 feet
D	Ohms per 1000 feet

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front to side ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Front to back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area