US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
D	Never

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	365 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows "hands free" operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It provides more power output

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	I am quitting for the day

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
C	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
D	Because it is the highest ionospheric region

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Transmitter
C	Receiver
D	Antenna and feed line

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To remove noise from received signals
B	To provide adequate grounding
C	To increase antenna bandwidth
D	To increase antenna gain

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	245 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	A resistor in parallel
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Rapid recharge
C	High discharge current
D	Long life

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Computer and transceiver
B	Power supply and amplifier
C	Amplifier and antenna
D	Microphone and transceiver

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Mixer
C	Detector
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Radian inversion
C	Angle convolution
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverting
B	Cancellation
C	Synthesizing
D	Heterodyning

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The entire file has been received correctly
B	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
D	The receiver is busy decoding the packet

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.5:1
B	3:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	6:1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/3 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
D	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds