US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	28.550 MHz
C	28.350 MHz
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
C	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	There is no age limit
C	12 years
D	21 years

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When under automatic control
D	When messages are encrypted

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
D	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	A slow speed until contact is established
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
B	At any point in the solar cycle
C	At the summer solstice
D	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
C	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
B	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
C	The communication is during a sunspot maximum
D	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	All of these choices are correct

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two swept frequency tones
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
C	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
B	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
C	Increase the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert an LC network between the two circuits

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	24 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	175 ohms
B	90 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	1500 ohms

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-11
B	Octal
C	PL-259
D	DB-25

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Discriminator
C	Product detector
D	Phase inverter

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	JT9 and JT65
B	Clover
C	RTTY
D	FSK441 and Hellschreiber

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.25:1
B	2:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	2.5:1

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Shorten the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
D	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
C	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

Figure G7-1