US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency end
C	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency end

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
B	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Automatically controlled digital station
B	Fail-safe digital station
C	Robotically controlled station
D	Locally controlled station

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
B	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
C	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
D	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Operating full break-in
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of out of band operation
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	CW
D	USB

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
B	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
B	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
C	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
D	The communication is during a sunspot maximum

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To facilitate computer interface
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
C	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	2370 volts
B	5.9 volts
C	540 volts
D	26.7 volts

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	1.0 volts
C	0.3 volts
D	0.1 volt

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Read Only Memory
B	Resistor Operated Memory
C	Random Operational Memory
D	Resistant to Overload Memory

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	SSB
C	All of these choices are correct
D	CW

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
B	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, mixer, detector

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Insufficient bandwidth

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Synthesizing
C	Phase inverting
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests the packet be retransmitted
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	0:0
B	1:1
C	2:1
D	50:50

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A helical antenna for space reception
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A very long and low directional receiving antenna

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D	Acceptable modulation limits

Figure G7-1