US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end
B	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency end
D	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
B	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
C	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	Increase power to overcome interference
D	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of all third party traffic

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Long Path propagation

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	All of these choices are correct.
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
C	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
D	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photosynthesis
D	Photon emission

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
C	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	245 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	2.2 nF
B	22 nF
C	220 nF
D	0.22 nF

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
B	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	An amplifier and a divider

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Twice the transmission line impedance
B	About the same
C	Substantially lower
D	Substantially higher

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	100 ohms

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB higher
B	2.54 dB higher
C	About the same
D	3 dB lower

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To permit multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder