US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end
B	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency end
D	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Identifying net frequencies
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 kHz
B	Approximately 10 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
D	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	11 years
B	28 days
C	40 hours
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the LUF
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	They have a wavering sound
B	All of these choices are correct
C	They have high intelligibility
D	They have very large swings in signal strength

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting tuned circuits
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When high precision is desired

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Bypass inductor

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Conductance
C	Received signal strength
D	Impedance

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	400 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3583 picofarads
B	1733 picofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	High voltage
C	Long life
D	High discharge current

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	High power handling capability
D	Low power consumption

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	IF amplifier
C	Balanced modulator
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Intermediate interference
C	Mixer interference
D	Quadrature noise

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It terminates the contact
B	It requests the packet be retransmitted
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	2:1
C	50:50
D	0:0

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front to back ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Front to side ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Polarization diversity
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of engine over torque
B	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
C	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
D	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion

Figure G7-1