US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	28.350 MHz
C	28.550 MHz
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	21 years
B	12 years
C	There is no age limit
D	18 years

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
B	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E skip
B	Faraday rotation
C	Short-path skip
D	Scatter

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Bypass inductor
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To maximize the transfer of power

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	24 volts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	24.4 to 1
B	150 to 1
C	12.2 to 1
D	300 to 1

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Tight tolerance
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	High capacitance for a given volume

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency Counter
B	Linear voltage regulator
C	Microprocessor
D	NAND Gate

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	A digital mixer
D	An analog mixer

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Twice the transmission line impedance
B	Substantially lower
C	Substantially higher
D	About the same

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
B	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
D	The entire file has been received correctly

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
D	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed in a wet area
B	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
C	It should limited to 10 feet in height
D	It should not be installed higher than you can reach

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas