US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Never

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Locally controlled station
B	Fail-safe digital station
C	Automatically controlled digital station
D	Robotically controlled station

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Phase modulation

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a different frequency
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	I acknowledge receipt
C	Send slower
D	We have already confirmed by card

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
C	Identification of out of band operation
D	Identification of different call signs

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3700 - 3750 kHz
B	3570 - 3600 kHz
C	3775 - 3825 kHz
D	3500 - 3525 kHz

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
C	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
B	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
D	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	Distorted speech
C	Splatter
D	All of these choices are correct

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The vehicle control computer
C	The battery charging system
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of each branch current
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	1000 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.3 volts
D	0.1 volt

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	RCA Phono
C	PL-259
D	BNC

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	Carrier oscillator
C	IF amplifier
D	RF amplifier

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency transformation

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Reactance modulator
C	Multiplier
D	Pre-emphasis network

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	The number varies
C	8
D	5

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element
B	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
C	The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
D	There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A helical antenna for space reception
B	A vertical antenna
C	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
D	A broad-band mobile antenna

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
C	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground