US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	60 meters
D	11 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	50 feet
C	300 feet
D	100 feet

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
B	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Very high fidelity voice modulation

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
B	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
C	Increase power to overcome interference
D	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of all third party traffic

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	Ripples in the ionosphere
D	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The D layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
D	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
B	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 4 times

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
C	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
B	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	90 ohms
B	175 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	1500 ohms

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Longer life
C	Faster response time
D	Lower power consumption

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Charge-coupled device
C	Microcontroller
D	Phase detector

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	Balanced modulator
C	RF oscillator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Radian inversion
C	Angle convolution
D	Phase convolution

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Reactance modulator
C	Pre-emphasis network
D	Multiplier

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	2:1
C	4:1
D	1:2

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	The resistance of solder is too high