US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
B	To control a space station
C	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D	During a declared communications emergency

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
C	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An omnidirectional antenna
B	A directional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Long pauses in message transmission

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Path distance and location
D	Time of day and season

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	An ammeter
D	A signal generator

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
B	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
C	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
D	Increase the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	34 volts
D	12 volts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	0.07 millihenrys
C	14.3 millihenrys
D	1000 millihenrys

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	DE-9
B	Type SMA
C	Type N
D	PL-259

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	RF oscillator
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Insufficient bandwidth

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	The connection is dropped
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower ground reflection losses
C	Shorter Radials
D	Lower radiation resistance

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The director is normally the longest element
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	The reflector is normally the longest element
D	All of the elements must be the same length

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

Figure G7-1