US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
B	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
C	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
D	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
B	All of these choices are correct
C	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
D	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Approximately 3 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	Stop sending

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of out of band operation
B	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	11 years
C	40 hours
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Path distance and location

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
B	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
C	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
D	All of these choices are correct

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Connect all ground conductors to a single point

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To allow automatic band changing
D	To allow remote tuning

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	625 watts
C	2500 watts
D	5000 watts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1000 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	1.0 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.3 volts

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
B	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
C	A special connector for microwave interfacing
D	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Phase inverter
C	Product detector
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Frequency shift keying

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Footer
B	Preamble
C	Header
D	Directory

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	50 and 75 ohms
D	500 and 750 ohms

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It cools body tissue

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire