US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	30 meters
C	20 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	300 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	12 years
C	18 years
D	21 years

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
D	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Reduced long delayed echoes
B	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
C	Improved HF long path propagation
D	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
B	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The communication is during a sunspot maximum

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	Balanced modulator
C	SWR Bridge
D	Q Multiplier

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Linearity

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In an SWR bridge
B	In a receiver
C	In a transmitter
D	In a conductance bridge

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	A Pi-network
C	A length of transmission line
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	1000 millihenrys
D	0.07 millihenrys

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.7 volts
C	0.3 volts
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Lower power consumption
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Faster response time
D	Longer life

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Transformers and transducers
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	Filter
C	IF amplifier
D	RF amplifier

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	VFO
B	BFO
C	Discriminator
D	Mixer

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using the varicode character set
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should limited to 10 feet in height
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
D	It should not be installed higher than you can reach

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
B	Danger of engine over torque
C	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
D	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion