US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
B	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
C	A beacon station may not use automatic control
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
C	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only when transmitting in RACES
B	Only on authorized HF frequencies
C	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
D	At any time during an actual emergency

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	A slow speed until contact is established
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	All of these choices are correct.
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
D	To prevent stations from interfering with one another

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
B	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon decomposition
B	Photosynthesis
C	Photovoltaic conversion
D	Photon emission

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
B	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	Tight tolerance
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High capacitance for given volume

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It has a wide viewing angle
B	It offers a wide dynamic range
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It requires ambient or back lighting

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	A digital processor chip
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	A digital to analog converter

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
B	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
C	Audio fidelity is improved
D	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	500 Hz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D	The entire file has been received correctly

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter Radials
B	Lower ground reflection losses
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Lower radiation resistance

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/3 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
C	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

Figure G7-1