US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3650 kHz
B	3560 kHz
C	2560 kHz
D	1855 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The ITU
C	The Control Operator
D	The IEEE

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	100 percent copy
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Skywarn
B	RTTY
C	Winlink
D	ARES

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C	At any point in the solar cycle
D	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A vertical antenna
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A pronounced peak
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	A pronounced dip

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases average power

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	25.9 percent
B	20.5 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	10.9 percent

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual inductance
B	Displacement current coupling
C	Capacitive coupling
D	Mutual capacitance

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	Comparatively low cost
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Tight tolerance

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type SMA
B	Type N
C	PL-259
D	DE-9

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	6
C	3
D	16

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Relatively low power consumption
C	Relatively high power output
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The RF clipping level
B	Attenuator level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By using the varicode character set
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	6:1
B	1.5:1
C	3:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	11 feet
D	16 feet

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
B	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
C	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
D	Directional receiving for low HF bands

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 16