US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	300 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	30 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	180 days

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	Information must be exchanged in English
B	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
C	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	A slow speed until contact is established
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
C	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Reduced long delayed echoes
C	Improved HF long path propagation
D	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the LUF
B	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
B	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	A signal generator
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Severely distorted audio

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The vehicle control computer
C	The battery charging system
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D	So the load will draw minimum power from the source

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	1060 watts
C	2120 watts
D	530 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenrys
B	0.07 millihenrys
C	1000 millihenrys
D	70 millihenrys

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its peak and valley current points
B	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
C	Its saturation and cutoff regions
D	Its enhancement and depletion modes

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	DE-9
C	Type N
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	CW
C	All of these choices are correct
D	AM

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Substantially lower
B	About the same
C	Substantially higher
D	Twice the transmission line impedance

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase convolution
C	Angle convolution
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	BFO
C	VFO
D	Mixer

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
B	The entire file has been received correctly
C	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	1 to 1
D	5 to 1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
C	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D	As close to one wavelength as possible

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines