US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	Only "10 codes" are permitted
C	Only "Q" signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	365 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	The received signal is more natural sounding
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It provides more power output
D	It allows "hands free" operation

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
B	Nets always have priority
C	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress always have priority

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Listening for novice stations
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Closing station now

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An omnidirectional antenna
B	An isotropic antenna
C	A directional antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Skywarn
B	Winlink
C	ARES
D	RTTY

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communications are disturbed
C	HF communications are improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic transmit/receive switching
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	VOX operation
D	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Radio wave propagation
C	Standing wave ratio
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Distorted speech
D	Clearly audible speech

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.184 MHz

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The battery charging system
D	The vehicle control computer

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 12 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	33.3 ohms
D	0.30 ohms

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
B	Its saturation and cutoff regions
C	Its enhancement and depletion modes
D	Its peak and valley current points

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	NAND Gate
B	Linear voltage regulator
C	Frequency Counter
D	Microprocessor

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Relatively high power output

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	3 kHz

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	Dot and Dash
C	Mark and Space
D	On and Off

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
B	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Directional receiving for low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

Figure G7-1