US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	During a declared communications emergency
B	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
C	To control a space station
D	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
B	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
C	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	Increase power to overcome interference
D	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3570 - 3600 kHz
B	3775 - 3825 kHz
C	3500 - 3525 kHz
D	3700 - 3750 kHz

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They are bent back to the Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The D layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A pronounced peak
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
B	The radiation resistance of an antenna
C	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
D	The radiation pattern of an antenna

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a transmitter
B	In a receiver
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	6 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A varistor
B	A tunnel diode
C	A field effect transistor
D	A bipolar transistor

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	MMIC

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	8
C	3
D	6

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	Substantially higher
C	Substantially lower
D	Twice the transmission line impedance

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	500 and 750 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	50 and 75 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High forward gain
C	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	All of these choices are correct
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

Figure G7-1