US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	14250 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	Only "10 codes" are permitted
C	Only "Q" signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
D	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B	A slow speed until contact is established
C	The speed at which the CQ was sent
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient drive power
B	Low input SWR
C	Excessive drive power
D	Shorting the input signal to ground

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Received signal strength
C	Conductance
D	Impedance

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon emission
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photosynthesis
D	Photovoltaic conversion

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To minimize transmitter power output

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	25.9 percent
D	20.5 percent

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	An inductor in series
C	A resistor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	NAND Gate
B	Frequency Counter
C	Microprocessor
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class AB
C	Class C
D	Class B

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Balanced modulator
C	RF oscillator
D	Product detector

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	The RF clipping level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	VFO
B	Discriminator
C	Mixer
D	BFO

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using the varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About 2/3 as much
B	About twice as much
C	About the same
D	About 1.5 times as much

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Wear a radiation badge
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

Figure G7-1