US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	All of these choices are correct
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
D	All of these choices are correct

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed by card
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	Ripples in the ionosphere
C	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
D	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
B	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
B	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Because it is the highest ionospheric region

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
D	To increase the "Q" of the antenna

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	24 watts
C	6 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	300 to 1
B	150 to 1
C	12.2 to 1
D	24.4 to 1

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Resistant to Overload Memory
B	Read Only Memory
C	Random Operational Memory
D	Resistor Operated Memory

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Quartz crystals
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Diodes

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By using direct signal phasing
B	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
C	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
D	By differential spurious phasing

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Excessive bandwidth

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Cancellation
B	Phase inverting
C	Synthesizing
D	Heterodyning

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Footer
C	Preamble
D	Directory

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	80 and 100 ohms

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
B	There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
C	The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
D	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	High forward gain
D	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It cools body tissue
D	It heats body tissue

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area