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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

SelectAnswer
A11 meters
B30 meters
C12 meters
D60 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

SelectAnswer
AInsure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
BAll of these choices are correct
CFollow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
DMonitor the frequency before transmitting

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A1200 baud
B56 kilobaud
C300 baud
D19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

SelectAnswer
AAt least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
BAt least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
CAt least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
DAt least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

SelectAnswer
AThe licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
BThe licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
CBoth repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
DThe frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

SelectAnswer
AOnly one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
BSSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
CSSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
DOnly one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

SelectAnswer
AOnly frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
BWhichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
COnly frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
DOnly frequencies that are within your operating privileges

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

SelectAnswer
AOperating full break-in
BClosing station now
CListening for novice stations
DListening only for a specific station or stations

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AYou must keep a record of all third party traffic
BYou must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
CIf you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
DYou must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

SelectAnswer
AJoining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
BSend a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
CSend broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
DTransmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

SelectAnswer
ANone, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
BIt disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
CIt enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
DIt disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

SelectAnswer
AA well-defined echo might be heard
BThe signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
CSignal strength increased by 3 dB
DPeriodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
BThe long path azimuth of a distant station
CThe short path azimuth of a distant station
DThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

SelectAnswer
AMore stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
BInterference from impulse noise will be eliminated
CIt may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
DAccidental out of band operation can be prevented

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

SelectAnswer
AIt decreases the loading on circuits being measured
BIt improves the frequency response
CIt improves the resolution of the readings
DIt decreases battery consumption in the meter

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
BOn-and-off humming or clicking
CSeverely distorted audio
DA chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

SelectAnswer
ASplatter
BAll of these choices are correct
CExcessive background pickup
DDistorted speech

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

SelectAnswer
AThe fuel delivery system
BThe vehicle control computer
CThe battery charging system
DAll of these choices are correct

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AAdmittance
BConductance
CReluctance
DReactance

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 61 watts
BApproximately 11 milliwatts
CApproximately 61 milliwatts
DApproximately 11 watts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

SelectAnswer
A1000 microfarads
B0.07 microfarads
C70 microfarads
D14.3 microfarads

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

SelectAnswer
AParallel to each other
BInterleaved
CIn line
DAt right angles to each other

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

SelectAnswer
ARJ-11
BDB-25
CPL-259
DOctal

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 1
BSymbol 5
CSymbol 2
DSymbol 4

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

SelectAnswer
AMultiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
BDivide the RF output power by the DC input power
CDivide the DC input power by the DC output power
DAdd the RF input power to the DC output power

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

SelectAnswer
AA radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
BA radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
CA radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
DA computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

SelectAnswer
AAngle convolution
BPhase convolution
CRadian inversion
DPhase modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

SelectAnswer
A31.5 Hz
B500 Hz
C1800 Hz
D2300 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

SelectAnswer
AEncoding reverts to the default character set
BPackets will be routed incorrectly
CThe connection is dropped
DThe checksum overflows

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

SelectAnswer
ABetween 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
BBetween 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C1 to 1
D5 to 1

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIf the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
BAntenna height has no effect on the pattern
CIf the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
DIf the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not require any inductors or capacitors
BIt is useful for matching multiband antennas
CAll of these choices are correct
DIt does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

SelectAnswer
ASWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
BLength and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
CGain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
DImpedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
AHigh duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
BA lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
CLow duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
DA higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

SelectAnswer
AMake sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
BUnground the base of the tower
CNotify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
DAll of these choices are correct

Figure G7-1