US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	60 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 kHz
B	Between 150 and 500 Hz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Approximately 10 kHz

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	180 degrees from its short-path heading
D	Toward the north

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Path distance and location

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F2 layer

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
D	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the average of each branch current
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	70 millihenrys
D	14.3 millihenrys

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special connector for microwave interfacing
B	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
C	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
D	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Balanced modulator
C	IF amplifier
D	Detector

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Footer
B	Directory
C	Preamble
D	Header

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	2.5:1
C	1.25:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
D	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A helical antenna for space reception

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
C	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
D	All of these choices are correct