US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high fidelity voice modulation
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Reduced long delayed echoes
B	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Improved HF long path propagation

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
C	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun has just set
B	Where the Sun is rising
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Shorting the input signal to ground
B	Insufficient drive power
C	Excessive drive power
D	Low input SWR

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation pattern of an antenna
B	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
C	The radiation resistance of an antenna
D	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna bandwidth
B	To remove noise from received signals
C	To provide adequate grounding
D	To increase antenna gain

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photosynthesis
D	Photon emission

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	5000 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	625 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	47 microfarads
B	47,000 microfarads
C	4.7 microfarads
D	0.47 microfarads

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
D	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Filter

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
B	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	100 ohms

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	32 feet
D	24 feet

32. - G9C03

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is normally the shortest element
B	The driven element is the longest element
C	The director is normally the shortest element
D	Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
D	It should limited to 10 feet in height

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	The resistance of solder is too high

Figure G7-1