US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	20 meters
C	160 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high fidelity voice modulation
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
D	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Improved HF long path propagation
C	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
D	Reduced long delayed echoes

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
D	To prevent stations from interfering with one another

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.647 MHz

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow remote tuning
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To allow automatic band changing
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A Pi-network
C	A length of transmission line
D	A transformer

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	3200 watts
C	400 watts
D	0.5 watts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	26.7 volts
B	540 volts
C	2370 volts
D	5.9 volts

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Lower inductance
B	Longer switching times
C	Lower capacitance
D	Higher breakdown voltage

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	DE-9
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	A digital to analog converter
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	A digital processor chip

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverting
B	Heterodyning
C	Synthesizing
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
C	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.5:1
B	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
C	6:1
D	3:1

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
C	It should limited to 10 feet in height
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

Figure G7-1