US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
C	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
D	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
C	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
B	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
C	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
D	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	I acknowledge receipt
C	Send slower
D	We have already confirmed by card

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Long pauses in message transmission

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved chances of UHF ducting
B	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improved ground-wave propagation
D	Improved high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A wavemeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A sidetone monitor

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	Bandpass tuning
B	A noise limiter
C	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
D	Balanced mixing

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.181 MHz

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	No current can flow through the circuit
B	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	The electrical load is shorted
D	The source delivers minimum power to the load

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	173 volts
B	692 volts
C	346 volts
D	245 volts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	540 volts
B	5.9 volts
C	2370 volts
D	26.7 volts

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its enhancement and depletion modes
B	Its peak and valley current points
C	Its saturation and cutoff regions
D	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type SMA
B	Type N
C	DE-9
D	PL-259

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	Product detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It terminates the contact
B	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
C	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
B	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
C	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire

Figure G7-1