US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
C	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
D	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Single sideband

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
B	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
C	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
D	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
C	A slow speed until contact is established
D	The speed at which the CQ was sent

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	USB
D	CW

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Better for RF measurements
C	Faster response
D	Better precision for most uses

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photosynthesis
B	Photovoltaic conversion
C	Photon emission
D	Photon decomposition

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 12 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	1733 picofarads
C	3583 picofarads
D	576.9 nanofarads

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To decrease plate resistance

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Reverse Biased
D	Beyond cutoff

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High Efficiency
B	No need for bias
C	Low distortion
D	Low standby power

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high power output
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The RF clipping level
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It terminates the contact
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Front to side ratio decreases
C	Front to back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of engine over torque
B	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
C	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning

Figure G7-1