US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	20 meters

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The IEEE
C	The Control Operator
D	The ITU

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	12 years
C	21 years
D	18 years

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
B	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	USB
C	DSB
D	LSB

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	All of these choices are correct.

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
B	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	Q Multiplier
C	SWR Bridge
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When testing logic circuits

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
C	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D	Connect all equipment grounds together

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Excessive background pickup
C	Splatter
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To minimize radiation resistance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	300 to 1
B	12.2 to 1
C	24.4 to 1
D	150 to 1

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its enhancement and depletion modes
B	Its saturation and cutoff regions
C	Its peak and valley current points
D	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	No need for bias
B	Low distortion
C	Low standby power
D	High Efficiency

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	RF oscillator
C	Product detector
D	IF filter

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature noise
B	Mixer interference
C	Image response
D	Intermediate interference

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Footer
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Preamble

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:1
B	1:5
C	5:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the two wires carrying voltage
B	All wires
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the neutral wire