US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	1875 kHz
B	3750 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	4005 kHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
C	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows "hands free" operation
B	It provides more power output
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets always have priority
C	QSOs in progress always have priority
D	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	85 Hz

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	Ripples in the ionosphere
D	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	They have very large swings in signal strength
C	They have a wavering sound
D	They have high intelligibility

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Shorting the input signal to ground
B	Insufficient drive power
C	Excessive drive power
D	Low input SWR

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photon emission
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Ohm
D	Siemens

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	10000 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	80 ohms

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	The capacitor could overheat and explode
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Charge-coupled device
B	Microcontroller
C	Phase detector
D	Window comparator

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
B	By differential spurious phasing
C	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
D	By using direct signal phasing

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	BFO
B	Discriminator
C	Mixer
D	VFO

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Preamble
C	Header
D	Footer

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	50 and 75 ohms
B	500 and 750 ohms
C	80 and 100 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/3 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
B	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight