US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
B	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	100 feet
C	50 feet
D	300 feet

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	30 days
D	365 days

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When messages are encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	Between 150 and 500 Hz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Approximately 10 kHz

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
C	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
C	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of all third party traffic

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	The position of the Moon in its orbit
C	The Sun's rotation on its axis
D	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Time of day and season
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E skip
B	Short-path skip
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To change frequency rapidly
B	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
C	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
D	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
D	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Distorted speech
C	Clearly audible speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.647 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To maximize the transfer of power

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1500 watts
D	1060 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	3.3 millihenrys
C	3.3 henrys
D	30 millihenrys

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To increase efficiency

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microprocessor
B	Frequency Counter
C	NAND Gate
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	8
C	16
D	6

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
D	A code using error detection and correction

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
B	To increase the front-to-back ratio
C	To increase the main lobe gain
D	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Wear a radiation badge
C	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly