US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14405 kHz
B	14305 kHz
C	14105 kHz
D	14005 kHz

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed by card
B	Send slower
C	We have worked before
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	14 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	A well-defined echo might be heard

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is overhead
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun is rising
D	Where the Sun has just set

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	Standing wave ratio
C	RF interference
D	Radio wave propagation

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon decomposition
B	Photon emission
C	Photosynthesis
D	Photovoltaic conversion

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	22 nF
B	0.22 nF
C	2.2 nF
D	220 nF

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	Reverse Biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Beyond cutoff

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	90 degrees

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	Product detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By using the varicode character set
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.5:1
B	6:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	3:1

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	21 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	A receiver with an S meter
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the two wires carrying voltage
D	All wires