US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
B	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
C	All of these choices are correct
D	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Countries in ITU Region 2
B	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
C	Countries in ITU Region 1
D	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
C	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
D	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	Listening for novice stations
C	Operating full break-in
D	Closing station now

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
B	Date and time of contact
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	DSB
C	USB
D	LSB

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D	At any point in the solar cycle

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	They have high intelligibility
C	They have very large swings in signal strength
D	They have a wavering sound

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic transmit/receive switching
B	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	VOX operation
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
B	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Clearly audible speech

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
D	14.344 to 14.347 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To minimize transmitter power output

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 12 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	300 microfarads

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	When a constant current charger is used
B	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
C	Never
D	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Low power consumption

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An analog mixer
D	A digital mixer

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The year in which PSK31 was invented
B	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
C	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
D	The version of the PSK protocol

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	80 and 100 ohms
B	500 and 750 ohms
C	25 and 30 ohms
D	50 and 75 ohms

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The physical length of the boom
C	The number of elements on the boom
D	The spacing of each element along the boom

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload

Figure G7-1