US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
B	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a different frequency
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am quitting for the day
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am ready to receive messages

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
C	The Sun's rotation on its axis
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
B	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
C	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
D	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
B	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The battery charging system
C	The fuel delivery system
D	The vehicle control computer

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
B	The source delivers minimum power to the load
C	No current can flow through the circuit
D	The electrical load is shorted

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.47 microfarads
B	47,000 microfarads
C	4.7 microfarads
D	47 microfarads

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
B	The capacitor could overheat and explode
C	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	Beyond cutoff
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Reverse Biased

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Transformers and transducers
C	Quartz crystals
D	Capacitors and inductors

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	8
C	3
D	6

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Balanced modulator
C	Mixer
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase modulation
C	Radian inversion
D	Angle convolution

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
B	It requests the packet be retransmitted
C	It terminates the contact
D	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter Radials
B	Lower feed point impedance
C	Lower ground reflection losses
D	Lower radiation resistance

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To permit multiband operation
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
B	It should limited to 10 feet in height
C	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
D	All of these choices are correct