US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	18155 kHz

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
B	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Monitor the frequency before transmitting

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	Extra, General and Technician
C	General and Technician
D	General only

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
B	A distress call
C	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
D	A general call for any station

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
C	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
D	All of these choices are correct

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To facilitate computer interface
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope uses less power
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Input impedance is much lower
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow remote tuning
B	To allow automatic band changing
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	1.414
C	2.00
D	0.707

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
D	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Long life
C	Rapid recharge
D	High discharge current

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class B
C	Class C
D	Class A

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
B	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency transformation

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	8 kHz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The entire file has been received correctly
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D	The receiver is busy decoding the packet

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
B	It increases
C	It decreases
D	It stays the same

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The number of elements on the boom
B	The spacing of each element along the boom
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The physical length of the boom

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the two wires carrying voltage
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	All wires