US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	3900 kHz
C	1875 kHz
D	4005 kHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Identifying net frequencies
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
B	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 50 Hz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	3 to 6 kHz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Sending without error
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of all third party traffic

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
B	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
C	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
D	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a receiver
B	In an SWR bridge
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In a transmitter

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow remote tuning
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To allow automatic band changing

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1000 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Lower power consumption
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Longer life
D	Faster response time

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	All of the these choices are correct
C	A digital processor chip
D	An analog to digital converter

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency conversion

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and Space
B	On and Off
C	Dot and Dash
D	High and Low

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	50 ohms

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	2.54 dB higher
B	3 dB lower
C	3 dB higher
D	About the same

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It has poor directivity
D	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area