US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3650 kHz
B	1855 kHz
C	2560 kHz
D	3560 kHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
B	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
B	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
B	Date and time of contact
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Band and/or frequency of the contact

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
D	14.150 - 14.225 MHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communications are improved
C	HF communications are disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Time of day and season
C	Path distance and location
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Scatter
C	Sporadic-E skip
D	Short-path skip

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
B	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
C	To reduce harmonic radiation
D	To increase overall efficiency

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	An antenna noise bridge
B	A field strength meter
C	A Q meter
D	A multimeter

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass inductor
D	Forward-biased diode

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
C	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	2500 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	5000 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	DE-9
B	PL-259
C	Type SMA
D	Type N

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Diodes
D	Quartz crystals

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
C	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Product detector
C	IF filter
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency transformation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
B	The version of the PSK protocol
C	The year in which PSK31 was invented
D	The approximate transmitted symbol rate

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	3:1
B	6:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	16 feet
C	11 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It causes radiation poisoning
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	The resistance of solder is too high
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike