US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
C	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
D	Monitor the frequency before transmitting

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
B	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
C	A distress call
D	A general call for any station

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Nets always have priority
B	QSOs in progress always have priority
C	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
D	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
D	An isotropic antenna

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Long pauses in message transmission

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
C	80 meters and 160 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is rising
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun has just set

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
C	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
D	The transceiver is operating from an external power source

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.647 MHz

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
D	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Ampere
C	Farad
D	Siemens

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
B	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	Quartz crystals
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of the these choices are correct
B	A digital processor chip
C	An analog to digital converter
D	A digital to analog converter

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Audio fidelity is improved
B	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B	Clover
C	RTTY
D	JT9 and JT65

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	6:1
B	3:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is normally the longest element
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	All of the elements must be the same length
D	The director is normally the longest element

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To permit multiband operation
B	To prevent out of band operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
D	Wear a radiation badge

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot