US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.500 MHz
B	7.250 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	40.500 MHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	300 feet

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
C	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	The received signal is more natural sounding
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It allows "hands free" operation
D	It provides more power output

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	Increase power to overcome interference
D	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Remote piloted model control

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3700 - 3750 kHz
B	3775 - 3825 kHz
C	3570 - 3600 kHz
D	3500 - 3525 kHz

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
B	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
C	At any point in the solar cycle
D	At the summer solstice

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
B	Where the Sun has just set
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To facilitate computer interface
C	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
D	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
B	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
D	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	3200 watts
D	200 watts

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Mutual inductance
D	Capacitive coupling

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its enhancement and depletion modes
B	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
C	Its peak and valley current points
D	Its saturation and cutoff regions

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Beyond cutoff
B	Forward Biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Reverse Biased

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class C
C	Class A
D	Class AB

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	Carrier oscillator
C	IF amplifier
D	RF amplifier

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The RF clipping level
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	BFO
B	Discriminator
C	VFO
D	Mixer

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using the varicode character set
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	84 feet
C	263 feet
D	131 feet

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
C	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A helical antenna for space reception
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A very long and low directional receiving antenna

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B	Insure that the generator is not grounded
C	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D	All of these choices are correct