US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14105 kHz
B	14005 kHz
C	14305 kHz
D	14405 kHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
D	Never

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	Any language recognized by the United Nations
B	The language being used for the contact
C	English, Spanish, French, or German
D	English only

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Sending without error
C	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D	Band and/or frequency of the contact

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct.
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the MUF
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just above the LUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F2 layer

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
C	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
D	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A multimeter
B	A field strength meter
C	An antenna noise bridge
D	A Q meter

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
C	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
D	Connect all equipment grounds together

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Splatter
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
B	To the battery using resistor wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the battery using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	34 volts
C	12 volts
D	24 volts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenrys
B	3.3 henrys
C	0.30 henrys
D	3.3 millihenrys

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
B	It will become time dependent
C	It will stay the same
D	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	It is resistant to high temperatures
B	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
C	The stored information cannot be changed once written
D	It is resistant to radiation damage

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Microcontroller
C	Charge-coupled device
D	Phase detector

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By using direct signal phasing
B	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
C	By differential spurious phasing
D	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 100 feet
B	Ohms per 1000 feet
C	Decibels per 1000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	16 feet
C	24 feet
D	32 feet

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized
B	There is no change in polarization
C	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
D	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	The resistance of solder is too high
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

Figure G7-1