US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	30 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	I am troubled by static
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Send more slowly

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.000 - 14.050 MHz

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	14 days

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance of an antenna
B	The radiation pattern of an antenna
C	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	The ground rod is resonant

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.175 to 7.178 MHz

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
D	To the battery using resistor wire

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	2.00
C	0.707
D	1.414

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special connector for microwave interfacing
B	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
C	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
D	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low standby power
B	No need for bias
C	High Efficiency
D	Low distortion

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
B	Relatively high power output
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
B	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
C	Audio fidelity is improved
D	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Volumetric
C	Viterbi
D	Binary

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	High forward gain
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should limited to 10 feet in height
D	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D	Insure that the generator is not grounded

Figure G7-1