US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Never

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	21 years
C	12 years
D	There is no age limit

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only when transmitting in RACES
B	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C	At any time during an actual emergency
D	Only on authorized HF frequencies

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from its short-path heading
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	Toward the rising Sun

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
D	14.000 - 14.050 MHz

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	20 to 40 hours
C	1 to 2 hours
D	28 days

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To facilitate computer interface
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When adjusting tuned circuits

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a receiver
B	In a conductance bridge
C	In a transmitter
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The vehicle control computer
D	The battery charging system

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 12 dB

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in parallel
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A bipolar transistor
B	A tunnel diode
C	A varistor
D	A field effect transistor

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	RJ-11
C	Octal
D	DB-25

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	CW
C	All of these choices are correct
D	SSB

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Discriminator
C	IF amplifier
D	Detector

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Attenuator level
D	The RF clipping level

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Image response
D	Quadrature noise

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Footer
C	Preamble
D	Header

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	6:1
B	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
C	1.5:1
D	3:1

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
D	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out of band operation
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened