US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
B	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	200 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English only
B	Any language recognized by the United Nations
C	English, Spanish, French, or German
D	The language being used for the contact

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 to 6 kHz
B	5 to 50 Hz
C	1 to 3 kHz
D	150 to 500 Hz

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed by card
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	Date and time of contact
C	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3570 - 3600 kHz
B	3775 - 3825 kHz
C	3700 - 3750 kHz
D	3500 - 3525 kHz

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path skip
B	Sporadic-E skip
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To increase overall efficiency

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	An antenna noise bridge
B	A field strength meter
C	A Q meter
D	A multimeter

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Splatter
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	530 watts
C	1060 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response time
B	Longer life
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Lower power consumption

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	No need for bias
B	Low distortion
C	Low standby power
D	High Efficiency

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high power output
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
B	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
C	The year in which PSK31 was invented
D	The version of the PSK protocol

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	75 ohms

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	32 feet
B	24 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To permit multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All of these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	Only the two wires carrying voltage
C	Only the ground wire
D	All wires