US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.500 MHz
B	7.250 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	40.500 MHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	During a declared communications emergency
B	To control a space station
C	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I acknowledge receipt
B	We have already confirmed by card
C	Send slower
D	We have worked before

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improved chances of UHF ducting
D	Improved high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
C	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
B	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
C	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
D	To prevent stations from interfering with one another

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When testing logic circuits

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Fewer digital components are required

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Splatter
C	Excessive background pickup
D	All of these choices are correct

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
B	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source delivers minimum power to the load
B	No current can flow through the circuit
C	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	The electrical load is shorted

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	5000 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Higher breakdown voltage
B	Lower inductance
C	Lower capacitance
D	Longer switching times

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	Type N
C	BNC
D	RCA Phono

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	The binary number system is most accurate

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Substantially lower
B	Substantially higher
C	About the same
D	Twice the transmission line impedance

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Synthesizing
C	Cancellation
D	Phase inverting

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
B	It terminates the contact
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1000 feet
B	Decibels per 1000 feet
C	Ohms per 100 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized
B	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
C	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
D	There is no change in polarization

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
D	It has poor directivity

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas