US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	Never
D	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
C	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Fail-safe digital station
B	Robotically controlled station
C	Locally controlled station
D	Automatically controlled digital station

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Zero beat my signal
B	I am troubled by static
C	Stop sending
D	Send more slowly

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	DSB
C	LSB
D	SSB

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
C	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Path distance and location
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	VOX operation
D	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	RF interference
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	Standing wave ratio

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To increase antenna bandwidth
C	To provide adequate grounding
D	To remove noise from received signals

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 12 dB

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	24.4 to 1
B	150 to 1
C	12.2 to 1
D	300 to 1

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B15

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?

Select	Answer
A	Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Higher current carrying capacity
D	Reduced chance of incorrect mating

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Transformers and transducers
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Diodes

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Charge-coupled device
C	Phase detector
D	Microcontroller

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Intermediate interference
C	Mixer interference
D	Quadrature noise

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Footer
C	Header
D	Directory

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	0:0
B	2:1
C	50:50
D	1:1

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	16 feet
C	11 feet
D	21 feet

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
C	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
D	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	A receiver with an S meter
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the two wires carrying voltage