US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	All three regions
B	Region 2
C	Region 3
D	Region 1

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
B	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	All of these choices are correct
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
C	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
D	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 to 6 kHz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	5 to 50 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Sending without error
C	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A directional antenna
C	An omnidirectional antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Long Path propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Insufficient modulation

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	20 to 40 hours
C	14 days
D	28 days

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Q Multiplier
B	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
C	SWR Bridge
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
D	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Distorted speech
D	Clearly audible speech

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.647 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The antenna system

19. - G5A10

What unit is used to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Volt
C	Watt
D	Ampere

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	1000 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A varistor
B	A tunnel diode
C	A field effect transistor
D	A bipolar transistor

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response time
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Lower power consumption
D	Longer life

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverter
B	Mixer
C	Product detector
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Synthesizing
C	Cancellation
D	Phase inverting

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	1:4

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
C	It stays the same
D	It decreases

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Closer element spacing
D	Tapered-diameter elements

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	60 amperes
D	100 amperes

Figure G7-1