US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
B	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
C	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Phase modulation

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
D	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
B	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Skywarn
B	ARES
C	Winlink
D	RTTY

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Reduced long delayed echoes
B	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Improved HF long path propagation
D	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
B	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A pronounced peak
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all equipment grounds together
B	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
C	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
D	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
D	7.175 to 7.178 MHz

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
C	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of each branch current
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 to 1
B	150 to 1
C	300 to 1
D	24.4 to 1

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Carrier oscillator
C	Filter
D	RF amplifier

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency shift keying
B	Phase modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverting
B	Synthesizing
C	Heterodyning
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
C	It terminates the contact
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
D	Attenuation increases

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	42 feet
C	131 feet
D	84 feet

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the main lobe gain
B	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C	To increase the front-to-back ratio
D	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out of band operation
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
B	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
C	Insure that the generator is not grounded
D	All of these choices are correct