US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
B	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
D	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
B	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	180 days
D	30 days

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	Between 150 and 500 Hz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Approximately 10 kHz

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	100 percent copy
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	Key clicks

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Send QRL in Morse code

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improved chances of UHF ducting
D	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
C	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	Severely distorted audio
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.184 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	So the load will draw minimum power from the source

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	5000 watts
C	2500 watts
D	8.75 watts

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the power dissipation capability
B	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
C	To increase the beta of the transistor
D	To reduce stray capacitance

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
B	A special connector for microwave interfacing
C	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
D	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	CW
C	SSB
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Product detector
C	RF oscillator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency shift keying
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1/3 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
B	High forward gain
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

Figure G7-1