US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency end
C	The upper frequency end
D	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The Control Operator
C	The ITU
D	The IEEE

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
B	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	Approximately 3 kHz
C	Between 150 and 500 Hz
D	Approximately 10 kHz

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Low power transmit operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Long Path propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	20 to 40 hours
C	14 days
D	28 days

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D	They pass through the ionosphere

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Receiver

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	1500 watts
C	530 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A resistor in series
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will stay the same
B	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
C	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
D	It will become time dependent

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Detector
C	IF amplifier
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Single sideband

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By using the varicode character set
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	50 and 75 ohms
B	25 and 30 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	80 and 100 ohms

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Shorten the radials
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Lengthen the radials

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
B	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
C	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
B	A vertical antenna
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A helical antenna for space reception

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Its duty cycle
D	Its power density

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
B	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
C	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
D	Danger of engine over torque