US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end
B	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency end
D	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are not permitted
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
B	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
D	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Between 150 and 500 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	Approximately 10 kHz
D	Approximately 3 kHz

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Increase your power
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Date and time of contact

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3700 - 3750 kHz
B	3500 - 3525 kHz
C	3775 - 3825 kHz
D	3570 - 3600 kHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	HF communications are improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	A well-defined echo might be heard

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Better precision for most uses
C	Better for RF measurements
D	Faster response

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	Severely distorted audio

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Conductance

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
B	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	24 volts
D	34 volts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 to 1
B	150 to 1
C	300 to 1
D	24.4 to 1

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
B	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
C	The capacitor could overheat and explode
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	The stored information cannot be changed once written
B	It is resistant to high temperatures
C	It is resistant to radiation damage
D	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Mixer
C	IF amplifier
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The checksum overflows
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1000 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower ground reflection losses
D	Shorter Radials

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Its duty cycle
C	Its power density
D	Its frequency

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder