US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.350 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	To control a space station
B	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
C	During a declared communications emergency
D	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
B	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Very high fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
B	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening for novice stations
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
D	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	CW
C	LSB
D	DSB

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct.
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
B	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The E layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Shorting the input signal to ground
B	Low input SWR
C	Excessive drive power
D	Insufficient drive power

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It improves the resolution of the readings

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a receiver
B	In a conductance bridge
C	In a transmitter
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B	To the battery using resistor wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 12 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	0.33 ohms
D	0.30 ohms

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce stray capacitance
B	To improve the power dissipation capability
C	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
D	To increase the beta of the transistor

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
B	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	90 degrees

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverter
B	Mixer
C	Discriminator
D	Product detector

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Insufficient audio

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Synthesizing
C	Cancellation
D	Phase inverting

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	7
C	5
D	The number varies

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation decreases

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	At the center of the antenna
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	The resistance of solder is too high
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike