US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.350 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Change to a different frequency

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed by card
B	We have worked before
C	I acknowledge receipt
D	Send slower

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Long Path propagation

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	14 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The D layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The F2 layer

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
B	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To facilitate computer interface

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	A signal generator

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Clearly audible speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The antenna system
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	A length of transmission line

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	1500 watts
C	2120 watts
D	530 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenrys
B	3.3 millihenrys
C	0.30 henrys
D	3.3 henrys

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce stray capacitance
B	To improve the power dissipation capability
C	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
D	To increase the beta of the transistor

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency Counter
B	Linear voltage regulator
C	Microprocessor
D	NAND Gate

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Diodes
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
B	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Single sideband

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
D	All of these choices are correct

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and Off
B	Dot and Dash
C	Mark and Space
D	High and Low

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter Radials
C	Lower ground reflection losses
D	Lower radiation resistance

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
B	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element
C	There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
D	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Polarization diversity

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
D	Wear a radiation badge

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
B	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
C	Danger of engine over torque
D	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion