US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	11 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	200 feet
C	300 feet
D	100 feet

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When under automatic control
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When messages are not encrypted

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
B	Only on authorized HF frequencies
C	Only when transmitting in RACES
D	At any time during an actual emergency

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising Sun
B	Along the gray line
C	180 degrees from its short-path heading
D	Toward the north

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	ARES
B	Winlink
C	RTTY
D	Skywarn

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved chances of UHF ducting
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Time of day and season
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The D layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent connection timeouts
B	The transmitter signal is distorted
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Excessive background pickup
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Splatter

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
B	To the battery using resistor wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the battery using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
D	So the load will draw minimum power from the source

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenrys
B	0.30 henrys
C	3.3 henrys
D	3.3 millihenrys

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	1.0 volts
D	0.3 volts

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Quartz crystals
D	Diodes

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To limit the modulation index

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
B	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
C	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	The RF clipping level
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Intermediate interference
C	Quadrature noise
D	Mixer interference

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Clover
B	JT9 and JT65
C	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
D	RTTY

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2.5:1
B	1.25:1
C	2:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	At the center of the antenna
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B	Wear a radiation badge
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit