US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	28.350 MHz
C	28.550 MHz
D	All of these choices are correct

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "Q" signals are permitted
B	Only "10 codes" are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Very high fidelity voice modulation

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	All of these choices are correct

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
D	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	SSB
D	USB

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	8 minutes
C	20 to 40 hours
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The E layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
B	To facilitate computer interface
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting tuned circuits
B	When high precision is desired
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
C	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
D	Adding series capacitors to the conductors

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To allow automatic band changing
C	To allow remote tuning
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of each branch current
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3583 picofarads
B	1733 picofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	High power handling capability
D	Low power consumption

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	Substantially higher
C	Twice the transmission line impedance
D	Substantially lower

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase modulation
C	Radian inversion
D	Angle convolution

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	JT9 and JT65
C	Clover
D	FSK441 and Hellschreiber

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	131 feet
C	42 feet
D	263 feet

32. - G9C03

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element is the longest element
B	Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth
C	The director is normally the shortest element
D	The reflector is normally the shortest element

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload