US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
B	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	During a declared communications emergency
B	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
C	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D	To control a space station

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
C	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When under automatic control
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Very high fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
C	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
D	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Sending without error
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	Date and time of contact
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point in the solar cycle
B	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C	At the summer solstice
D	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
C	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The D layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To increase overall efficiency

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better precision for most uses
B	Faster response
C	Better for RF measurements
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced mixing
B	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C	A noise limiter
D	Bandpass tuning

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Distorted speech
C	Splatter
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	300 microfarads

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Lower capacitance
B	Longer switching times
C	Lower inductance
D	Higher breakdown voltage

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It offers a wide dynamic range
B	It has a wide viewing angle
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It requires ambient or back lighting

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Charge-coupled device
B	Microcontroller
C	Window comparator
D	Phase detector

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Relatively high power output
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	The RF clipping level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Discriminator
C	BFO
D	VFO

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Volumetric
C	Viterbi
D	Varicode

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2.5:1
B	2:1
C	1.25:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Shorten the radials
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of engine over torque
B	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
C	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning