US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Technician only
C	Extra, General and Technician
D	General only

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Key clicks
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	SSB
D	USB

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To facilitate computer interface
D	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced mixing
B	Bandpass tuning
C	A noise limiter
D	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.184 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
B	The inverse of resistance
C	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
D	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	2.00
C	1.00
D	1.414

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A resistor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	The capacitor could overheat and explode
C	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Fewer circuit components are required

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The number of stages in the counter

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	Carrier oscillator
C	RF amplifier
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Quadrature noise
C	Image response
D	Intermediate interference

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	The number varies
B	8
C	7
D	5

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	50:1
C	5:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
B	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized
C	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
D	There is no change in polarization

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the ground wire
C	Only the two wires carrying voltage
D	Only the neutral wire