US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	All three regions
C	Region 2
D	Region 3

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "Q" signals are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are not permitted
D	Only "10 codes" are permitted

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 to 6 kHz
B	5 to 50 Hz
C	150 to 500 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	Ripples in the ionosphere
D	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
B	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Q Multiplier
C	SWR Bridge
D	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	The antenna system
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
B	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To increase efficiency

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Beyond cutoff
B	Reverse Biased
C	Forward Biased
D	At the Zener voltage

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	A digital mixer
C	An analog mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
C	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	Clover
C	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
D	JT9 and JT65

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	300 ohms

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It stays the same
B	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
C	It increases
D	It decreases

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
C	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for low HF bands
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened