US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The FCC
D	The Control Operator

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
B	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
C	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 3 kHz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	5 to 50 Hz
D	3 to 6 kHz

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed by card
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Long Path propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Insufficient modulation

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved chances of UHF ducting
C	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
B	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When adjusting tuned circuits
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.184 MHz

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
D	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination

19. - G5A10

What unit is used to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Watt
C	Volt
D	Ampere

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	1500 watts
C	1060 watts
D	530 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	0.30 microfarads

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	No need for bias
B	High Efficiency
C	Low standby power
D	Low distortion

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
B	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
C	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	The RF clipping level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	500 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By using the varicode character set
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	16 feet
C	21 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
C	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
B	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

Figure G7-1