US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	60 meters

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The IEEE
C	The Control Operator
D	The ITU

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
C	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	All of these choices are correct
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive messages
B	I am quitting for the day
C	You are sending too fast
D	There is interference on the frequency

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Remote piloted model control

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
C	The Sun's rotation on its axis
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The D layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The F2 layer

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient drive power
B	Shorting the input signal to ground
C	Low input SWR
D	Excessive drive power

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Better precision for most uses
C	Better for RF measurements
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	A ground loop

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1060 watts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	1000 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Higher breakdown voltage
B	Lower capacitance
C	Lower inductance
D	Longer switching times

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for RF amplification

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverter
B	Discriminator
C	Product detector
D	Mixer

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient audio
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient bandwidth

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	VFO
C	BFO
D	Discriminator

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It requests the packet be retransmitted
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	75 ohms

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds