US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1855 kHz
B	3650 kHz
C	2560 kHz
D	3560 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The IEEE
C	The ITU
D	The Control Operator

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Robotically controlled station
B	Locally controlled station
C	Automatically controlled digital station
D	Fail-safe digital station

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
C	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
D	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
B	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
D	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long Path propagation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Overmodulation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
B	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
C	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low input SWR
B	Insufficient drive power
C	Shorting the input signal to ground
D	Excessive drive power

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An oscilloscope
C	An ohmmeter
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of resistance
B	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
C	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
D	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	400 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	353.5 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	90 ohms
C	175 ohms
D	150 ohms

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Transformers and transducers
C	Quartz crystals
D	Diodes

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To limit the modulation index

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	IF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	Filter

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and Off
B	High and Low
C	Dot and Dash
D	Mark and Space

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2.5:1
B	2:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	1.25:1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
D	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
B	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
C	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D	As close to one wavelength as possible

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
B	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
C	It should not be installed in a wet area
D	It should limited to 10 feet in height

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	Acceptable modulation limits