US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The ITU
C	The IEEE
D	The Control Operator

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
C	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Automatically controlled digital station
B	Robotically controlled station
C	Fail-safe digital station
D	Locally controlled station

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
C	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	100 percent copy
D	Key clicks

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
B	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
C	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
B	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
C	The E-region is not present
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
B	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
C	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
D	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
D	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
C	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D	Adding series capacitors to the conductors

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In an SWR bridge
B	In a receiver
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In a transmitter

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	The antenna system
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	200 watts
D	3200 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.30 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Mixer
C	IF amplifier
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Quadrature noise
C	Image response
D	Mixer interference

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Footer
C	Directory
D	Preamble

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/3 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	2/3 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
C	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

Figure G7-1