US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Identifying net frequencies
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
B	Information must be exchanged in English
C	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 to 6 kHz
B	5 to 50 Hz
C	150 to 500 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
C	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
D	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	USB
C	LSB
D	DSB

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
B	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun has just set
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun is rising
D	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
B	To change frequency rapidly
C	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
D	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
B	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
C	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
D	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
C	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
D	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
D	So the load will draw minimum power from the source

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 12 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	300 microfarads

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	High capacitance for a given volume

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
B	A special connector for microwave interfacing
C	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
D	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Radian inversion
C	Angle convolution
D	Phase convolution

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	60 kHz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It terminates the contact
B	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
C	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	50 and 75 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB lower
B	3 dB higher
C	2.54 dB higher
D	About the same

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
D	A receiver with an S meter

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 20
D	AWG number 16

Figure G7-1