US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency end
C	The lower frequency end
D	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
B	All of these choices are correct
C	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
D	In conformance with the rules of the IARU

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When messages are not encrypted

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 to 6 kHz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	5 to 50 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	I am troubled by static

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D	Date and time of contact

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink
B	ARES
C	RTTY
D	Skywarn

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	8 minutes
C	20 to 40 hours
D	28 days

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	A well-defined echo might be heard
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is rising
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun has just set

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	VOX operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
C	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
D	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Splatter
B	Distorted speech
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
C	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the average of each branch current
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	0.30 microfarads

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	Type N
C	Type SMA
D	DE-9

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High Efficiency
B	Low standby power
C	No need for bias
D	Low distortion

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high power output
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency shift keying
C	Frequency modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using the varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.25:1
B	2:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	2.5:1

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	131 feet

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About twice as much
B	About the same
C	About 1.5 times as much
D	About 2/3 as much

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	As close to one wavelength as possible
C	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
B	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded