US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	11 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	300 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	General only
C	Extra, General and Technician
D	Technician only

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	Any language recognized by the United Nations
B	English only
C	The language being used for the contact
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
C	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
D	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Stop sending
C	Send more slowly
D	Zero beat my signal

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of all third party traffic

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"
B	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
C	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
D	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
C	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two swept frequency tones
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B	To the battery using resistor wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	5000 watts
C	625 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	10000 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

23. - G6B15

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?

Select	Answer
A	Reduced chance of incorrect mating
B	Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
C	Higher current carrying capacity
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	Balanced modulator
C	Product detector
D	IF filter

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase modulation
C	Angle convolution
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	500 Hz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests the packet be retransmitted
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.5:1
B	3:1
C	6:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases
B	It stays the same
C	It increases
D	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
C	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
C	It has poor directivity
D	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
D	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires

Figure G7-1