US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
B	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
C	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
C	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
D	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have already confirmed by card
C	We have worked before
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
C	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the LUF
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Transmitter
C	Receiver
D	Antenna and feed line

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Transmitter power output
C	Received signal strength
D	Conductance

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To maximize the transfer of power
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To reduce power supply ripple

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1500 watts
D	530 watts

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A resistor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	It is resistant to radiation damage
B	The stored information cannot be changed once written
C	It is resistant to high temperatures
D	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the counter
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Relatively high power output
C	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Multiplier
C	Reactance modulator
D	Pre-emphasis network

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and Off
B	Dot and Dash
C	Mark and Space
D	High and Low

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	50:1
C	1:5
D	2:1

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It has poor directivity
C	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
D	Its impedance is too low for effective matching

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Its power density
D	Its frequency

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground