US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
B	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	300 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	General and Technician
C	General only
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
B	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
C	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows "hands free" operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It provides more power output

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Increase your power
C	Send slower
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	180 degrees from its short-path heading
D	Toward the north

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is overhead
B	Where the Sun is rising
C	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
D	Where the Sun has just set

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To facilitate computer interface
B	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better precision for most uses
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Better for RF measurements

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	Distorted speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To allow remote tuning
D	To allow automatic band changing

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
B	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	34 volts
D	24 volts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	540 volts
B	26.7 volts
C	5.9 volts
D	2370 volts

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will become time dependent
B	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
C	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
D	It will stay the same

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
C	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Mixer
C	Phase inverter
D	Product detector

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	The number varies
C	5
D	8

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	5 to 1
D	1 to 1

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	It has poor directivity
C	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
B	Wear a radiation badge
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
C	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
D	All of these choices are correct

Figure G7-1