US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14005 kHz
B	14305 kHz
C	14105 kHz
D	14405 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The Control Operator
B	The IEEE
C	The ITU
D	The FCC

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
C	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
B	QSOs in progress always have priority
C	Nets always have priority
D	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Change frequency
C	Increase your power
D	Repeat everything twice

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
B	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
C	At any point in the solar cycle
D	At the summer solstice

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
B	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Splatter
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon emission
B	Photosynthesis
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photovoltaic conversion

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 to 1
B	24.4 to 1
C	150 to 1
D	300 to 1

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
D	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
B	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
C	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
D	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	500 Hz

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
C	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters make the signal stronger

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
C	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
D	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Wide bandwidth

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
D	It should limited to 10 feet in height

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly