US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
C	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
D	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English only
B	Any language recognized by the United Nations
C	English, Spanish, French, or German
D	The language being used for the contact

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Listening for novice stations
D	Operating full break-in

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3700 - 3750 kHz
B	3775 - 3825 kHz
C	3500 - 3525 kHz
D	3570 - 3600 kHz

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just above the LUF
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The E layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	VOX operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An ammeter
C	A signal generator
D	An oscilloscope

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	Bandpass tuning
B	A noise limiter
C	Balanced mixing
D	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
D	7.175 to 7.178 MHz

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	530 watts
C	1060 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	2370 volts
B	26.7 volts
C	5.9 volts
D	540 volts

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A varistor
B	A bipolar transistor
C	A field effect transistor
D	A tunnel diode

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse Biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Forward Biased
D	Beyond cutoff

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The binary number system is most accurate

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
B	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
C	By differential spurious phasing
D	By using direct signal phasing

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
D	All of these choices are correct

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:50
B	0:0
C	1:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	At the center of the antenna
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB lower
B	3 dB higher
C	About the same
D	2.54 dB higher

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Polarization diversity

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All of these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	The resistance of solder is too high
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike