US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
B	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
B	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
C	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
D	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	365 days
D	30 days

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
B	Information must be exchanged in English
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The control operator must have at least a General Class license

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am ready to receive messages

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
B	An isotropic antenna
C	An omnidirectional antenna
D	A directional antenna

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
B	Ripples in the ionosphere
C	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for RF measurements
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Better precision for most uses

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Forward-biased diode

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
D	The antenna system

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source delivers minimum power to the load
B	The electrical load is shorted
C	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	No current can flow through the circuit

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	625 watts
C	5000 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	300 to 1
B	12.2 to 1
C	24.4 to 1
D	150 to 1

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	Tight tolerance
D	High capacitance for a given volume

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	Beyond cutoff
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Reverse Biased

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Quartz crystals
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Capacitors and inductors

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	All of the these choices are correct
C	A digital to analog converter
D	A digital processor chip

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	The connection is dropped
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
C	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
B	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
C	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
D	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A helical antenna for space reception
B	A vertical antenna
C	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
D	A broad-band mobile antenna

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
D	Wear a radiation badge

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened