US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	Never
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	180 degrees from its short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Toward the rising Sun

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	All of these choices are correct
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of carrier phase shift
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Linearity

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Bypass inductor
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Forward-biased diode

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a transmitter
B	In a receiver
C	In an SWR bridge
D	In a conductance bridge

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Much less leakage than any other type

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	Reverse Biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Beyond cutoff

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Phase detector
B	Microcontroller
C	Window comparator
D	Charge-coupled device

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Phase inverter
C	Mixer
D	Product detector

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Mixer
C	VFO
D	BFO

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	7
C	The number varies
D	8

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It stays the same
C	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
D	It decreases

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To permit multiband operation
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits