US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only "Q" signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Extra, General and Technician
B	Technician only
C	General only
D	General and Technician

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
B	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
C	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
D	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 kHz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	Approximately 10 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are improved
B	HF communications are disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They are bent back to the Earth
D	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The D layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The radio is operating at half power
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance of an antenna
B	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
C	The radiation pattern of an antenna
D	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 12 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.47 microfarads
B	47,000 microfarads
C	4.7 microfarads
D	47 microfarads

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
C	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of the these choices are correct
B	A digital to analog converter
C	An analog to digital converter
D	A digital processor chip

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The entire file has been received correctly
B	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	1 to 1
D	5 to 1

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The director is normally the longest element
B	All of the elements must be the same length
C	The reflector is normally the longest element
D	The reflector is normally the shortest element

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
C	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
D	All of these choices are correct

Figure G7-1