US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.250 MHz
B	40.200 MHz
C	40.500 MHz
D	7.500 MHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
B	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
B	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
C	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
D	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
C	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
D	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Between 150 and 500 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Approximately 10 kHz

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
B	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
B	Microwave communications become unstable
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
B	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	SWR Bridge
C	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D	Q Multiplier

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Input impedance is much lower

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The vehicle control computer
C	The battery charging system
D	The fuel delivery system

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	12 volts
D	34 volts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	3.3 millihenrys
C	30 millihenrys
D	3.3 henrys

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its enhancement and depletion modes
B	Its peak and valley current points
C	Its saturation and cutoff regions
D	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	DB-25
B	RJ-11
C	PL-259
D	Octal

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	A digital to analog converter
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	A digital processor chip

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Angle convolution
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase modulation
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It terminates the contact
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It requests a change in transmitting protocol

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Larger diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Loading coils in series with the element

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire

Figure G7-1