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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A2560 kHz
B3650 kHz
C3560 kHz
D1855 kHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

SelectAnswer
AOnly when the information is of a routine, personal nature
BOnly with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
CTo control a space station
DDuring a declared communications emergency

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A1200 baud
B300 baud
C56 kilobaud
D19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

SelectAnswer
AThe person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
BThe person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
CThe person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
DNone of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

SelectAnswer
AAny country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
BEvery foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
CCountries in ITU Region 2
DCountries in ITU Region 1

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
AUpper sideband
BVestigial sideband
CDouble sideband
DLower sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

SelectAnswer
AFollow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
BCheck to see if the channel is assigned to another station
CAll of these choices are correct
DIdentify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

SelectAnswer
AI acknowledge receipt
BSend slower
CWe have already confirmed by card
DWe have worked before

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

SelectAnswer
AToward the north
B180 degrees from its short-path heading
CToward the rising Sun
DAlong the gray line

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

SelectAnswer
A14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B14.070 - 14.100 MHz
C14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AOnly at the maximum point of the solar cycle
BAt any point in the solar cycle
COnly at the minimum point of the solar cycle
DAt the summer solstice

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThey pass through the ionosphere
BThey are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
CThey are bent back to the Earth
DThey are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical antenna
BA horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
CA left-hand circularly polarized antenna
DA right-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ATo balance the transmitter audio frequency response
BTo reduce harmonic radiation
CTo reduce distortion due to excessive drive
DTo increase overall efficiency

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AAn external RF oscillator
BThe attenuated RF output of the transmitter
CThe transmitter balanced mixer output
DThe local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

SelectAnswer
AThe SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
BAn item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
CYou receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
DYou receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

SelectAnswer
AIt is 100 times more powerful
BIt is 10 times less powerful
CIt is 20 times more powerful
DIt is 20 times less powerful

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

SelectAnswer
AOperating bandwidth may be very limited
BShort antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
CHarmonic radiation may increase
DShort antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A400 watts
B0.5 watts
C3200 watts
D200 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

SelectAnswer
ATo insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
BTo prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
CTo improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
DTo accommodate the higher current of the primary

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

SelectAnswer
A0.7 volts
B0.3 volts
C1.0 volts
D0.1 volt

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AProgrammable Logic
BAnalog
CMMIC
DDigital

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 1
BSymbol 6
CSymbol 7
DSymbol 11

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

SelectAnswer
ADivide the DC input power by the DC output power
BMultiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
CAdd the RF input power to the DC output power
DDivide the RF output power by the DC input power

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

SelectAnswer
AProduct detector
BIF filter
CBalanced modulator
DRF oscillator

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
BSignal distortion caused by excessive drive
CThe transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
DSignal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BTo aid in tuning your transmitter
CSome modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
DTo allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

SelectAnswer
AThe approximate transmitted symbol rate
BThe number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
CThe version of the PSK protocol
DThe year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

SelectAnswer
AThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
BThe feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
CThe feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
DThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
ASlope the radials downward
BSlope the radials upward
CShorten the radials
DLengthen the radials

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

SelectAnswer
AThe reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
BThe reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element
CThe driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
DThere must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical antenna
BA helical antenna for space reception
CA broad-band mobile antenna
DA very long and low directional receiving antenna

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATake precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
BUse an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
CChange to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
DPost a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

SelectAnswer
ARF exposure limits of the human body
BAcceptable modulation limits
CAcceptable bandwidth limits
DElectrical safety inside the ham shack

Figure G7-1