US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.200 MHz
B	7.250 MHz
C	7.500 MHz
D	40.500 MHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The Control Operator
B	The ITU
C	The FCC
D	The IEEE

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	The Universal Licensing System

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Stop sending
C	Send more slowly
D	Zero beat my signal

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising Sun
B	180 degrees from its short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
B	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the MUF
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path skip
B	Faraday rotation
C	Scatter
D	Sporadic-E skip

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	VOX operation
B	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It equals the average of each branch current
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 ohms
B	33.3 ohms
C	0.30 ohms
D	300 ohms

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
B	The capacitor could overheat and explode
C	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	CW
C	AM
D	SSB

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Phase inverter
C	Discriminator
D	Product detector

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D	The entire file has been received correctly

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	50 and 75 ohms
B	500 and 750 ohms
C	80 and 100 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	11 feet

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

Figure G7-1