US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	17 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a RACES net control operator

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Key clicks
C	100 percent copy
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
D	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	CW
C	DSB
D	LSB

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A vertical antenna
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	SWR Bridge
C	Balanced modulator
D	Q Multiplier

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
B	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
C	The radiation resistance of an antenna
D	The radiation pattern of an antenna

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using resistor wire
B	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It equals the average of each branch current

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	175 ohms
B	90 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	1500 ohms

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for given volume
B	Tight tolerance
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High stability

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
B	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Quartz crystals

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	AM
C	SSB
D	CW

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Product detector
C	RF oscillator
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Angle convolution
C	Radian inversion
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	The number varies
C	8
D	5

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	42 feet
C	263 feet
D	131 feet

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
C	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the generator is not grounded
B	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed