US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
B	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
C	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
D	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	12 years
B	21 years
C	There is no age limit
D	18 years

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party is a licensed amateur
D	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 3 kHz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	3 to 6 kHz
D	5 to 50 Hz

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	SK
C	BK
D	KN

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink
B	Skywarn
C	ARES
D	RTTY

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
B	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A vertical antenna
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Antenna and feed line
C	Transmitter
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
B	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.184 MHz

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
C	To the battery using resistor wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Farad
C	Siemens
D	Ampere

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 12 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	0.07 microfarads
D	1000 microfarads

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	Interleaved
B	Parallel to each other
C	In line
D	At right angles to each other

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Analog
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To limit the modulation index

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Detector
C	IF amplifier
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	BFO
C	VFO
D	Mixer

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	50:1
C	2:1
D	1:5

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit