US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
B	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
C	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
D	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
B	Countries in ITU Region 1
C	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
D	Countries in ITU Region 2

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	SK
C	KN
D	BK

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An omnidirectional antenna
B	A directional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3500 - 3525 kHz
B	3775 - 3825 kHz
C	3570 - 3600 kHz
D	3700 - 3750 kHz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	The Sun's rotation on its axis

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two swept frequency tones

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	A noise limiter
B	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C	Balanced mixing
D	Bandpass tuning

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a transmitter
B	In a conductance bridge
C	In a receiver
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
C	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	34 volts
D	24 volts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	1000 millihenrys
D	0.07 millihenrys

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
B	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The capacitor could overheat and explode

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Analog
C	Digital
D	Programmable Logic

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By differential spurious phasing
B	By using direct signal phasing
C	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
D	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	60 kHz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests the packet be retransmitted
B	It terminates the contact
C	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
D	It requests a change in transmitting protocol

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
B	At the center of the antenna
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
B	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
C	There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
D	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the generator is not grounded
B	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
C	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
D	All of these choices are correct

Figure G7-1