US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3900 kHz
B	1875 kHz
C	4005 kHz
D	3750 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The FCC
C	The IEEE
D	The Control Operator

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	21 years
C	There is no age limit
D	12 years

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	Any language recognized by the United Nations
B	English only
C	The language being used for the contact
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
B	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Send slower
C	Change frequency
D	Increase your power

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	USB
C	LSB
D	CW

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	11 years
D	40 hours

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	Double hop propagation along the path is more common

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	No change will be observed
C	A pronounced dip
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A field strength meter
C	A wavemeter
D	A sidetone monitor

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	Severely distorted audio
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow remote tuning
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To allow automatic band changing

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
B	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
C	Increase the power output of the first circuit
D	Reduce the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	530 watts
C	1500 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	30 millihenrys
C	3.3 millihenrys
D	3.3 henrys

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	High voltage
C	Long life
D	High discharge current

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency Counter
B	NAND Gate
C	Linear voltage regulator
D	Microprocessor

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	Carrier oscillator
C	Filter
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	2:1
D	50:1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It heats body tissue
C	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
D	It cools body tissue

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit

Figure G7-1