US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
D	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
D	Information must be exchanged in English

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
B	A general call for any station
C	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D	A distress call

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a different frequency
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Band and/or frequency of the contact

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F2 layer

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Input impedance is much lower
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	1060 watts
C	530 watts
D	1500 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	0.07 millihenrys
D	1000 millihenrys

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Lower power consumption
C	Longer life
D	Faster response time

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
B	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency shift keying

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B	JT9 and JT65
C	RTTY
D	Clover

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the front-to-back ratio
B	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C	To increase the main lobe gain
D	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
C	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
D	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the ground wire
C	Only the two wires carrying voltage
D	Only the neutral wire