US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
B	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
C	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
D	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
B	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
C	Countries in ITU Region 2
D	Countries in ITU Region 1

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am ready to receive messages

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of out of band operation
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of different call signs

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
C	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
D	14.150 - 14.225 MHz

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	All of these choices are correct.

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
B	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
C	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path skip
B	Sporadic-E skip
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The transmitter signal is distorted
D	Frequent connection timeouts

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It decreases battery consumption in the meter

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
B	No current can flow through the circuit
C	The electrical load is shorted
D	The source delivers minimum power to the load

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 12 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	MMIC
C	Analog
D	Digital

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	AM
C	SSB
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Relatively high power output
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Phase inverting
C	Synthesizing
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests the packet be retransmitted
B	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
C	It terminates the contact
D	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter Radials
B	Lower ground reflection losses
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower feed point impedance

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A helical antenna for space reception
B	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A vertical antenna

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

Figure G7-1