US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.020 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Identifying net frequencies
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
B	Information must be exchanged in English
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A general call for any station
B	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
C	A distress call
D	The caller is listening for a station in Germany

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
B	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
C	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
D	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	I am troubled by static
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Improved HF long path propagation
B	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
C	Reduced long delayed echoes
D	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	SWR Bridge
C	Q Multiplier
D	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	RF interference
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	Standing wave ratio

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To provide adequate grounding
C	To remove noise from received signals
D	To increase antenna bandwidth

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source delivers minimum power to the load
B	No current can flow through the circuit
C	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	The electrical load is shorted

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	5000 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1000 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase efficiency

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Computer and transceiver
B	Microphone and transceiver
C	Amplifier and antenna
D	Power supply and amplifier

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
C	Audio fidelity is improved
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:50
B	0:0
C	1:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A helical antenna for space reception
B	A vertical antenna
C	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
D	A broad-band mobile antenna

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
B	A receiver with an S meter
C	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life