US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.500 MHz
B	40.500 MHz
C	7.250 MHz
D	40.200 MHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	Only "Q" signals are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General only
B	Technician only
C	Extra, General and Technician
D	General and Technician

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Locally controlled station
B	Robotically controlled station
C	Automatically controlled digital station
D	Fail-safe digital station

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A general call for any station
B	A distress call
C	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
D	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	AR
C	SK
D	BK

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Remote piloted model control

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	A well-defined echo might be heard
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C	The radio is operating at half power
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Connect all ground conductors to a single point

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
D	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
D	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	No current can flow through the circuit
B	The electrical load is shorted
C	The source delivers minimum power to the load
D	The source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	2500 watts
D	625 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	6 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-11
B	Octal
C	DB-25
D	PL-259

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	6
C	3
D	16

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	A digital processor chip
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	An analog to digital converter

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency shift keying
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It terminates the contact
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
C	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
D	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

Figure G7-1