US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	21300 kHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
B	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
B	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
C	Countries in ITU Region 1
D	Countries in ITU Region 2

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
B	A distress call
C	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D	A general call for any station

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
B	QSOs in progress always have priority
C	Nets always have priority
D	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
B	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
C	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
D	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved chances of UHF ducting
B	Improved ground-wave propagation
C	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Time of day and season
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Path distance and location

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
B	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C	The communication is during a sunspot maximum
D	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Excessive background pickup
C	Splatter
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The battery charging system
C	The vehicle control computer
D	The fuel delivery system

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to each other
B	At right angles to each other
C	Interleaved
D	In line

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
B	It is resistant to radiation damage
C	It is resistant to high temperatures
D	The stored information cannot be changed once written

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	A digital mixer
D	An analog mixer

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	IF amplifier
C	Balanced modulator
D	Mixer

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency shift keying
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The entire file has been received correctly
B	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	50:1
C	5:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter Radials
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower ground reflection losses

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is normally the shortest element
B	The director is normally the longest element
C	All of the elements must be the same length
D	The reflector is normally the longest element

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	High forward gain
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas