US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	300 feet
C	50 feet
D	200 feet

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	Information must be exchanged in English
B	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
C	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am quitting for the day
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	There is interference on the frequency

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
D	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
B	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
C	Microwave communications become unstable
D	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When adjusting tuned circuits
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Bypass inductor

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a transmitter
B	In a receiver
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon emission
B	Photovoltaic conversion
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the power output of the first circuit
B	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
C	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
D	Reduce the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A resistor in parallel

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The capacitor could overheat and explode
D	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Computer and transceiver
B	Microphone and transceiver
C	Power supply and amplifier
D	Amplifier and antenna

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microcontroller
B	Phase detector
C	Charge-coupled device
D	Window comparator

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	An analog to digital converter
C	A digital processor chip
D	All of the these choices are correct

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	416.7 Hz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using the varicode character set
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	50 and 75 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Polarization diversity
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Acceptable modulation limits