US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
B	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
C	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
D	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
B	All of these choices are correct
C	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
D	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
B	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	All of these choices are correct
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	100 percent copy
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
B	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
C	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
D	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
B	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	Microwave communications become unstable

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
B	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
C	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To change frequency rapidly
B	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
C	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
D	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
B	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
C	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.184 MHz

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	2.00
C	0.707
D	1.414

21. - G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	0.17 ohms
C	10000 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Longer switching times
B	Lower capacitance
C	Lower inductance
D	Higher breakdown voltage

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	RCA Phono
C	Type N
D	BNC

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Balanced modulator
C	Discriminator
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Mixer
C	Pre-emphasis network
D	Reactance modulator

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Volumetric
C	Binary
D	Viterbi

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	3:1
B	1.5:1
C	6:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To permit multiband operation
B	To prevent out of band operation
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It heats body tissue
C	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
D	It cools body tissue

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
D	Insure that the generator is not grounded