US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	4005 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	The Universal Licensing System

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	Information must be exchanged in English
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
D	The control operator must have at least a General Class license

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 3 kHz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	3 to 6 kHz
D	5 to 50 Hz

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	SK
C	AR
D	KN

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	Date and time of contact
C	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Reduced long delayed echoes
D	Improved HF long path propagation

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The E layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
D	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
B	Two swept frequency tones
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the power output of the first circuit
B	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
C	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert a circulator between the two circuits

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	3200 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	3.3 henrys
C	3.3 millihenrys
D	30 millihenrys

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
C	When a constant current charger is used
D	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response time
B	Longer life
C	Lower power consumption
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
B	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
C	The entire file has been received correctly
D	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	6:1
B	1.5:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	3:1

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its duty cycle
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	The resistance of solder is too high
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

Figure G7-1