US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
B	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Approximately 3 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Operating full break-in
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Low power transmit operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
C	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
D	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
C	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Received signal strength
C	Transmitter power output
D	Conductance

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
B	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
C	The inverse of resistance
D	The electric charge stored by a capacitor

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of each branch current
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3583 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	1733 picofarads

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microprocessor
B	Frequency Counter
C	NAND Gate
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Charge-coupled device
B	Phase detector
C	Microcontroller
D	Window comparator

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, mixer, detector

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It terminates the contact
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:1
C	0:0
D	50:50

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front to back ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Front to side ratio decreases

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
B	A helical antenna for space reception
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A vertical antenna

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should limited to 10 feet in height
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
D	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring