US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.020 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	200 feet
C	300 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
B	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Low power transmit operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Long Path propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is rising
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun has just set

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced peak

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
B	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
C	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
D	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photosynthesis
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photon emission

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of resistance
B	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
C	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
D	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
B	The capacitor could overheat and explode
C	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special connector for microwave interfacing
B	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
C	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
D	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To limit the modulation index

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
C	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	The RF clipping level

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It terminates the contact
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Front to back ratio decreases
C	Front to side ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	All of these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Insure that the generator is not grounded
D	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected