US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	60 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	300 feet

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Countries in ITU Region 1
B	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
C	Countries in ITU Region 2
D	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Very high fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a RACES net control operator

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening for novice stations
B	Closing station now
C	Operating full break-in
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Date and time of contact

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3570 - 3600 kHz
B	3775 - 3825 kHz
C	3500 - 3525 kHz
D	3700 - 3750 kHz

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just below the MUF
C	Select a frequency just above the LUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
B	Where the Sun is rising
C	Where the Sun has just set
D	Where the Sun is overhead

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	VOX operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
C	Connect all equipment grounds together
D	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	A length of transmission line

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.5 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	10.9 percent
D	12.2 percent

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	24.4 to 1
B	150 to 1
C	300 to 1
D	12.2 to 1

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	RCA Phono
C	PL-259
D	Type N

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Diodes

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	RF oscillator
C	Product detector
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
C	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests the packet be retransmitted
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It terminates the contact
D	It requests a change in transmitting protocol

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
B	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
C	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Polarization diversity

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should limited to 10 feet in height
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
D	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 12