US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
C	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	18 years
C	21 years
D	12 years

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Low power transmit operation
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink
B	Skywarn
C	ARES
D	RTTY

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
C	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
D	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	They have high intelligibility
B	They have a wavering sound
C	All of these choices are correct
D	They have very large swings in signal strength

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Better precision for most uses
C	Better for RF measurements
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
D	14.344 to 14.347 MHz

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
B	A computer on a single integrated circuit
C	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
D	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Relatively low power consumption
C	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
D	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Volumetric

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	24 feet
C	32 feet
D	16 feet

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	A receiver with an S meter
C	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
D	All of these choices are correct

Figure G7-1