US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	28.020 MHz
C	28.550 MHz
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
C	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
B	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Nets always have priority
D	QSOs in progress always have priority

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am quitting for the day
D	I am ready to receive messages

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
C	Identification of out of band operation
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
D	Ripples in the ionosphere

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
B	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
C	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
D	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An ohmmeter
C	A signal generator
D	An oscilloscope

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	A chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
B	The inverse of resistance
C	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
D	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	34 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
C	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A varistor
B	A bipolar transistor
C	A tunnel diode
D	A field effect transistor

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	DE-9
C	Type SMA
D	Type N

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
B	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
C	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and Dash
B	Mark and Space
C	On and Off
D	High and Low

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	4:1
C	1:2
D	1:4

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

32. - G9C03

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is normally the shortest element
B	The driven element is the longest element
C	Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth
D	The director is normally the shortest element

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	High forward gain
D	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	100 amperes
B	60 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	15 amperes

Figure G7-1