US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
B	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C	All of these choices are correct
D	In conformance with the rules of the IARU

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	100 percent copy
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Low power transmit operation
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	SSB
C	LSB
D	USB

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	11 years
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	40 hours

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just below the MUF
C	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The E layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	All of these choices are correct

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
C	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
D	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
D	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
D	14.344 to 14.347 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The antenna system
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.414
C	2.00
D	1.00

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	540 volts
B	5.9 volts
C	2370 volts
D	26.7 volts

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	When a constant current charger is used
B	Never
C	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
D	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	DE-9
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital processor chip
B	A digital to analog converter
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	An analog to digital converter

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Angle convolution
C	Radian inversion
D	Phase convolution

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Mixer interference
C	Quadrature noise
D	Image response

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
D	Upper case letters make the signal stronger

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 1
B	5 to 1
C	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
B	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
C	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Directional receiving for low HF bands

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the two wires carrying voltage
B	All wires
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the neutral wire

Figure G7-1