US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14005 kHz
B	14105 kHz
C	14405 kHz
D	14305 kHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	300 feet

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
B	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Skywarn
B	ARES
C	Winlink
D	RTTY

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Improved HF long path propagation
B	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Reduced long delayed echoes
D	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Path distance and location

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	Severely distorted audio

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
C	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
D	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	24 volts
C	34 volts
D	12 volts

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	220 nF
B	22 nF
C	2.2 nF
D	0.22 nF

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A varistor
B	A bipolar transistor
C	A tunnel diode
D	A field effect transistor

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Charge-coupled device
C	Microcontroller
D	Phase detector

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Directional receiving for low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
D	A receiver with an S meter

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	60 amperes
D	100 amperes