US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency end
C	The lower frequency end
D	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
C	A beacon station may not use automatic control
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	30 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It allows "hands free" operation
C	It provides more power output
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a different frequency
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Listening for novice stations
C	Closing station now
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3775 - 3825 kHz
B	3500 - 3525 kHz
C	3570 - 3600 kHz
D	3700 - 3750 kHz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
B	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
D	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To facilitate computer interface
C	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
B	The radiation pattern of an antenna
C	The radiation resistance of an antenna
D	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	Fewer digital components are required

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In an SWR bridge
B	In a conductance bridge
C	In a transmitter
D	In a receiver

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To minimize transmitter power output

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1000 millihenrys
B	0.07 millihenrys
C	14.3 millihenrys
D	70 millihenrys

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
B	A special connector for microwave interfacing
C	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
D	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low distortion
B	Low standby power
C	No need for bias
D	High Efficiency

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Mixer
C	Phase inverter
D	Product detector

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The entire file has been received correctly
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	50 ohms

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It stays the same
B	It increases
C	It decreases
D	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees

32. - G9C03

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element is the longest element
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth
D	The director is normally the shortest element

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To permit multiband operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Insure that the generator is not grounded