US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
B	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	300 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
D	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English, Spanish, French, or German
B	English only
C	Any language recognized by the United Nations
D	The language being used for the contact

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Between 150 and 500 Hz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	LSB
C	SSB
D	DSB

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the LUF
B	Select a frequency just below the MUF
C	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When adjusting tuned circuits
C	When high precision is desired
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Distorted speech
D	Splatter

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	The antenna system
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ohm
C	Siemens
D	Ampere

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 watts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	540 volts
B	26.7 volts
C	5.9 volts
D	2370 volts

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	Long life
C	High voltage
D	Rapid recharge

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	PL-259
C	Type N
D	BNC

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Product detector
C	IF filter
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Frequency drift
D	Insufficient bandwidth

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	The number varies
C	5
D	8

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
D	It should limited to 10 feet in height

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder