US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
B	Never
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have worked before
C	I acknowledge receipt
D	We have already confirmed by card

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"
B	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
C	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
D	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	HF communications are improved
C	HF communications are disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the MUF
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
B	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Reverse-biased diode

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Ohm
C	Farad
D	Ampere

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	20.5 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	25.9 percent

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	1733 picofarads
C	3583 picofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	When a constant current charger is used
B	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
C	Never
D	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High Efficiency
B	Low standby power
C	No need for bias
D	Low distortion

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	IF amplifier
C	Detector
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using the varicode character set

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency