US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	21 years
B	There is no age limit
C	18 years
D	12 years

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
B	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
C	Countries in ITU Region 2
D	Countries in ITU Region 1

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	A well-defined echo might be heard
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun has just set
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	All of these choices are correct
D	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It improves the frequency response

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
D	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	The antenna system
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.22 nF
B	220 nF
C	22 nF
D	2.2 nF

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	DE-9
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Mixer
C	Balanced modulator
D	Detector

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Simpler receiving equipment can be used

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Footer
B	Header
C	Preamble
D	Directory

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	24 feet
C	32 feet
D	16 feet

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	2.54 dB higher
B	About the same
C	3 dB lower
D	3 dB higher

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should limited to 10 feet in height
C	It should not be installed in a wet area
D	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	The resistance of solder is too high

Figure G7-1