US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
B	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
C	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
D	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a RACES net control operator

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3570 - 3600 kHz
B	3500 - 3525 kHz
C	3775 - 3825 kHz
D	3700 - 3750 kHz

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	20 to 40 hours
D	14 days

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
D	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
D	It improves the resolution of the readings

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Forward-biased diode

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.175 to 7.178 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To maximize the transfer of power
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To reduce power supply ripple

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	3200 watts
C	400 watts
D	0.5 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
B	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	In line
B	Parallel to each other
C	Interleaved
D	At right angles to each other

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It requires ambient or back lighting
C	It has a wide viewing angle
D	It offers a wide dynamic range

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	6
C	3
D	16

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Mixer
C	Detector
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single sideband

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Quadrature noise
C	Intermediate interference
D	Mixer interference

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
B	The entire file has been received correctly
C	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	80 and 100 ohms
D	500 and 750 ohms

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

Select	Answer
A	There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
B	The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
C	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
D	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
D	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires

Figure G7-1