US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14005 kHz
B	14105 kHz
C	14305 kHz
D	14405 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only "Q" signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high fidelity voice modulation
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	A slow speed until contact is established
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of all third party traffic

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
B	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
C	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
D	Microwave communications become unstable

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The D layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A pronounced peak
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Standing wave ratio
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	Radio wave propagation

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	A chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Ohm
C	Farad
D	Siemens

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The peak value
D	The reciprocal of the RMS value

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its peak and valley current points
B	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
C	Its enhancement and depletion modes
D	Its saturation and cutoff regions

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Computer and transceiver
B	Power supply and amplifier
C	Microphone and transceiver
D	Amplifier and antenna

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
C	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
D	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Radian inversion
B	Phase convolution
C	Angle convolution
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
B	The entire file has been received correctly
C	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
D	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
C	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

Figure G7-1