US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The Control Operator
C	The IEEE
D	The FCC

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	30 days
D	365 days

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
B	Information must be exchanged in English
C	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Zero beat my signal
B	I am troubled by static
C	Send more slowly
D	Stop sending

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved chances of UHF ducting
B	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved ground-wave propagation

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
B	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun has just set
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When testing logic circuits

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Splatter
B	Excessive background pickup
C	Distorted speech
D	All of these choices are correct

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
B	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
C	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
D	Increase the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.414
C	2.00
D	1.00

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henrys
B	0.30 henrys
C	30 millihenrys
D	3.3 millihenrys

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
C	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
D	When a constant current charger is used

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	No need for bias
B	High Efficiency
C	Low standby power
D	Low distortion

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Radian inversion
C	Phase convolution
D	Angle convolution

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Clover
B	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
C	RTTY
D	JT9 and JT65

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.25:1
B	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
C	2.5:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Shorten the radials
D	Lengthen the radials

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

Figure G7-1