US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.350 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
B	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
C	All of these choices are correct
D	In conformance with the rules of the IARU

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Extra, General and Technician
B	General only
C	General and Technician
D	Technician only

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive messages
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am quitting for the day
D	You are sending too fast

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
C	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
D	Microwave communications become unstable

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	A well-defined echo might be heard
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
C	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
D	The E-region is not present

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To facilitate computer interface
C	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
C	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
B	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
C	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	6 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Amplifier and antenna
B	Computer and transceiver
C	Microphone and transceiver
D	Power supply and amplifier

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Relatively high power output

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	The RF clipping level
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	16 kHz

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A code using error detection and correction

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	1:4
C	2:1
D	1:2

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
B	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
C	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
D	Wear a radiation badge

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
B	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

Figure G7-1