US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.350 MHz
B	28.020 MHz
C	28.550 MHz
D	All of these choices are correct

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
B	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
B	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	I am troubled by static
C	Send more slowly
D	Zero beat my signal

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
B	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
C	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
D	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communications are improved
D	HF communications are disturbed

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
D	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is rising
B	Where the Sun has just set
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Antenna and feed line

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Clearly audible speech
D	Distorted speech

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow automatic band changing
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To allow remote tuning
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Siemens
C	Ampere
D	Farad

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	0.707
C	1.00
D	1.414

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	12 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	IF filter
C	Balanced modulator
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	BFO
B	Discriminator
C	Mixer
D	VFO

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Volumetric
C	Varicode
D	Viterbi

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	The resistance of solder is too high
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection