US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 2
C	All three regions
D	Region 3

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
D	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	An isotropic antenna
C	An omnidirectional antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	The Sun's rotation on its axis
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the LUF
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	The E-region is not present
C	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
D	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A Pi-network
D	A transformer

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1500 watts
D	1060 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	33.3 microfarads

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.3 volts
D	0.7 volts

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
B	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
C	A special connector for microwave interfacing
D	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	Mixer

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Double sideband

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The year in which PSK31 was invented
B	The version of the PSK protocol
C	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
D	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	0:0
B	50:50
C	2:1
D	1:1

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
B	At the center of the antenna
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
B	To increase the main lobe gain
C	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms
D	To increase the front-to-back ratio

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To permit multiband operation
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with an S meter
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	All of these choices are correct