US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.500 MHz
B	7.500 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	7.250 MHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
B	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
C	All of these choices are correct
D	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	365 days
D	30 days

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
B	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Information must be exchanged in English

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a RACES net control operator

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
D	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	A well-defined echo might be heard
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To facilitate computer interface
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Splatter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
B	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
C	To the battery using resistor wire
D	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	47 microfarads
B	47,000 microfarads
C	4.7 microfarads
D	0.47 microfarads

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Lower inductance
B	Higher breakdown voltage
C	Longer switching times
D	Lower capacitance

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Diodes

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To limit the modulation index

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	RF amplifier
C	IF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency shift keying
B	Frequency modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using the varicode character set
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Shorten the radials
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	About twice as much
C	About 1.5 times as much
D	About 2/3 as much

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its frequency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
B	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
C	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
D	Danger of engine over torque