US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.200 MHz
B	7.250 MHz
C	7.500 MHz
D	40.500 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
D	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	All of these choices are correct
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It allows "hands free" operation
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It occupies less bandwidth

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
B	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
C	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
D	Increase power to overcome interference

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved chances of UHF ducting
B	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved ground-wave propagation

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path skip
C	Faraday rotation
D	Sporadic-E skip

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To facilitate computer interface
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ohmmeter
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	1.00
C	0.707
D	1.414

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
D	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
B	Never
C	When a constant current charger is used
D	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Computer and transceiver
B	Amplifier and antenna
C	Microphone and transceiver
D	Power supply and amplifier

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Quartz crystals
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	8
C	3
D	16

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	RF oscillator
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	VFO
B	Mixer
C	Discriminator
D	BFO

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Preamble
C	Footer
D	Directory

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Larger diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It causes radiation poisoning
C	It heats body tissue
D	It cools body tissue

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the neutral wire
C	All wires
D	Only the two wires carrying voltage