US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	300 feet
B	50 feet
C	100 feet
D	200 feet

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When under automatic control
D	When messages are not encrypted

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
D	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive messages
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
B	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
C	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Sporadic-E skip
C	Short-path skip
D	Faraday rotation

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To increase overall efficiency
B	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	Standing wave ratio
C	RF interference
D	Radio wave propagation

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Connect all ground conductors to a single point

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The antenna system
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 12 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	70 millihenrys
D	1000 millihenrys

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To increase efficiency

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special connector for microwave interfacing
B	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
C	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
D	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Transformers and transducers
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Diodes

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	IF filter
C	RF oscillator
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Volumetric

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	500 and 750 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	50 and 75 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About twice as much
B	About 1.5 times as much
C	About the same
D	About 2/3 as much

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	High forward gain
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its frequency
C	Its duty cycle
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload