US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	4005 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Robotically controlled station
B	Locally controlled station
C	Fail-safe digital station
D	Automatically controlled digital station

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
D	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A field strength meter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	An oscilloscope

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	6 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	0.33 ohms
D	33.3 ohms

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low distortion
B	Low standby power
C	High Efficiency
D	No need for bias

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
B	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
C	By differential spurious phasing
D	By using direct signal phasing

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Intermediate interference
C	Quadrature noise
D	Mixer interference

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Footer
C	Preamble
D	Directory

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
B	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
C	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A broad-band mobile antenna
C	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
D	A helical antenna for space reception

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
B	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
C	It should not be installed in a wet area
D	It should limited to 10 feet in height

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder