US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	All three regions
C	Region 3
D	Region 2

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
B	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a different frequency
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Time of day and season
C	Path distance and location
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A vertical antenna
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
B	All of these choices are correct
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	Severely distorted audio

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A transformer
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	175 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	90 ohms

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.7 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.3 volts

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	DE-9
C	Type SMA
D	Type N

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The entire file has been received correctly
D	The receiver is busy decoding the packet

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	4:1
C	1:4
D	2:1

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It decreases
C	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
D	It stays the same

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
C	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
D	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
C	It should limited to 10 feet in height
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area

Figure G7-1