US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When messages are not encrypted

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Phase modulation

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	You are sending too fast

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	11 years
D	40 hours

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the LUF
B	Select a frequency just below the MUF
C	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The E layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
B	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
C	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
D	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.350 MHz

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1000 millihenrys
B	0.07 millihenrys
C	14.3 millihenrys
D	70 millihenrys

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	3
C	6
D	16

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	An analog to digital converter
C	A digital processor chip
D	All of the these choices are correct

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Audio fidelity is improved
B	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Simpler receiving equipment can be used

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	500 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using the varicode character set

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:5
C	2:1
D	50:1

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It has poor directivity
D	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

Figure G7-1