US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	Never
C	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
D	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
D	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
B	Increase power to overcome interference
C	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
D	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Long Path propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced dip
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced peak

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An ohmmeter

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 watts
B	Approximately 61 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	26.7 volts
B	2370 volts
C	5.9 volts
D	540 volts

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microprocessor
B	Frequency Counter
C	Linear voltage regulator
D	NAND Gate

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Quartz crystals
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
B	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
C	By differential spurious phasing
D	By using direct signal phasing

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase convolution
C	Angle convolution
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Volumetric
C	Binary
D	Viterbi

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload