US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1855 kHz
B	3650 kHz
C	3560 kHz
D	2560 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only "10 codes" are permitted
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
B	Countries in ITU Region 2
C	Countries in ITU Region 1
D	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
B	A general call for any station
C	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
D	A distress call

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 50 Hz
B	3 to 6 kHz
C	150 to 500 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	We have already confirmed by card
C	I acknowledge receipt
D	Send slower

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path skip
C	Sporadic-E skip
D	Faraday rotation

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	SWR Bridge
C	Q Multiplier
D	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	A signal generator
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	1.4 watts

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	A resistor in parallel
D	An inductor in parallel

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A field effect transistor
B	A tunnel diode
C	A varistor
D	A bipolar transistor

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Analog
B	Digital
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class C
C	Class AB
D	Class A

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Product detector
C	Phase inverter
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Pre-emphasis network
B	Multiplier
C	Mixer
D	Reactance modulator

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B	Clover
C	RTTY
D	JT9 and JT65

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 1
B	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	1 to 1
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It steadily decreases

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	2/3 wavelength
D	1/3 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle