US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
B	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
B	A beacon station may not use automatic control
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Between 150 and 500 Hz
B	Approximately 3 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Approximately 10 kHz

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening for novice stations
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Closing station now

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
B	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improved chances of UHF ducting
D	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
B	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D	To facilitate computer interface

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Receiver

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	100 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	47,000 microfarads
B	0.47 microfarads
C	47 microfarads
D	4.7 microfarads

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
D	The capacitor could overheat and explode

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	SSB
C	CW
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	A digital processor chip
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	A digital to analog converter

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The version of the PSK protocol
B	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
C	The year in which PSK31 was invented
D	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	1:4
C	4:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It has poor directivity
C	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
D	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Its frequency
D	Its power density

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle