US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.250 MHz
B	40.200 MHz
C	40.500 MHz
D	7.500 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Identifying net frequencies
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
D	Observation of propagation and reception

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
D	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	At any time during an actual emergency
B	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C	Only on authorized HF frequencies
D	Only when transmitting in RACES

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	850 Hz

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improved chances of UHF ducting
C	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved ground-wave propagation

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
B	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The communication is during a sunspot maximum

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	SWR Bridge
C	Balanced modulator
D	Q Multiplier

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	A ground loop
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
C	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
D	The inverse of resistance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	400 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Mutual inductance
D	Displacement current coupling

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
B	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
C	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
D	A computer on a single integrated circuit

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Product detector
C	Phase inverter
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Cancellation
C	Synthesizing
D	Phase inverting

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
B	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
C	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
D	The entire file has been received correctly

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	50 ohms

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	High forward gain
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It cools body tissue
D	It heats body tissue

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
B	Danger of engine over torque
C	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
D	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion