US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
B	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	A beacon station may not use automatic control
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
D	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	The language being used for the contact
B	Any language recognized by the United Nations
C	English, Spanish, French, or German
D	English only

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high fidelity voice modulation
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
B	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
C	A directional antenna
D	An omnidirectional antenna

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	Skywarn
C	Winlink
D	ARES

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Path distance and location
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	They have high intelligibility
C	They have a wavering sound
D	They have very large swings in signal strength

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Input impedance is much lower
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The antenna system
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 watts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 61 milliwatts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.3 volts
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Low power consumption

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
C	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
D	The binary number system is most accurate

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	IF filter
C	Balanced modulator
D	Product detector

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	BFO
B	VFO
C	Mixer
D	Discriminator

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Preamble
C	Footer
D	Directory

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
D	A receiver with an S meter

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

Figure G7-1