US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.350 MHz
B	28.550 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The FCC
C	The Control Operator
D	The ITU

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	12 years
B	21 years
C	18 years
D	There is no age limit

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When messages are encrypted

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
B	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
C	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
D	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	A slow speed until contact is established
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Skywarn
B	ARES
C	Winlink
D	RTTY

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	They have a wavering sound
C	They have high intelligibility
D	They have very large swings in signal strength

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	VOX operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Transmitter

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Conductance
C	Received signal strength
D	Impedance

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
B	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To maximize the transfer of power

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 12 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	220 nF
B	0.22 nF
C	22 nF
D	2.2 nF

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The capacitor could overheat and explode

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	RCA Phono
C	Type N
D	BNC

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Diodes
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Quartz crystals

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class C
C	Class B
D	Class A

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	RF amplifier
C	Filter
D	Carrier oscillator

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Radian inversion
C	Angle convolution
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The checksum overflows
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Shorten the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Lengthen the radials

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A helical antenna for space reception

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator must be insulated from ground