US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	60 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
B	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
C	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
B	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
D	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
B	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
D	Identification of different call signs

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
D	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
D	The E-region is not present

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To provide adequate grounding
B	To remove noise from received signals
C	To increase antenna bandwidth
D	To increase antenna gain

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.175 to 7.178 MHz

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon emission
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photovoltaic conversion
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To reduce power supply ripple

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the average of each branch current
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A resistor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A tunnel diode
B	A bipolar transistor
C	A field effect transistor
D	A varistor

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse Biased
B	Beyond cutoff
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Forward Biased

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By using direct signal phasing
B	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
C	By differential spurious phasing
D	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Radian inversion
B	Phase modulation
C	Angle convolution
D	Phase convolution

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
C	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:50
B	1:1
C	2:1
D	0:0

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
D	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
D	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

Figure G7-1