US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "Q" signals are permitted
B	Only "10 codes" are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	30 days
C	180 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
C	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
D	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive messages
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am quitting for the day

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	A directional antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
C	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
B	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The communication is during a sunspot maximum

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A multimeter
B	A field strength meter
C	A Q meter
D	An antenna noise bridge

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	The ground rod is resonant

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To allow remote tuning
D	To allow automatic band changing

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	2.00
C	1.00
D	1.414

21. - G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	10000 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	It is resistant to radiation damage
B	The stored information cannot be changed once written
C	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
D	It is resistant to high temperatures

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class A
C	Class B
D	Class C

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Detector
C	Discriminator
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	The RF clipping level

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverting
B	Heterodyning
C	Synthesizing
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Header
C	Preamble
D	Footer

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	4:1

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	2/3 wavelength
D	1/3 wavelength

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A broad-band mobile antenna
C	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
D	A helical antenna for space reception

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
C	It should limited to 10 feet in height
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	The resistance of solder is too high

Figure G7-1