US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	4005 kHz
B	3750 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	Only "10 codes" are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
D	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	A slow speed until contact is established
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
D	The speed at which the CQ was sent

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Date and time of contact
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	USB
D	CW

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
B	At the summer solstice
C	At any point in the solar cycle
D	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
D	To prevent stations from interfering with one another

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
B	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
C	Increase the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert a circulator between the two circuits

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	34 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	1000 millihenrys
D	0.07 millihenrys

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the beta of the transistor
B	To improve the power dissipation capability
C	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
D	To reduce stray capacitance

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	The stored information cannot be changed once written
B	It is resistant to radiation damage
C	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
D	It is resistant to high temperatures

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
B	By differential spurious phasing
C	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
D	By using direct signal phasing

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Excessive bandwidth

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It requests the packet be retransmitted
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
C	It has poor directivity
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It heats body tissue
D	It cools body tissue

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly