US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency end
C	The upper frequency end
D	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
B	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is a licensed amateur
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows "hands free" operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It provides more power output

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
C	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
D	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am quitting for the day
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	There is interference on the frequency

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Long Path propagation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B	Microwave communications become unstable
C	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
D	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is rising
B	Where the Sun has just set
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive drive power
B	Shorting the input signal to ground
C	Low input SWR
D	Insufficient drive power

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
D	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	3200 watts
D	200 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	4.7 microfarads
B	47,000 microfarads
C	0.47 microfarads
D	47 microfarads

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Longer switching times
B	Lower inductance
C	Lower capacitance
D	Higher breakdown voltage

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Lower power consumption
B	Longer life
C	Faster response time
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
D	The binary number system is most accurate

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
B	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	4:1

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
B	It stays the same
C	It decreases
D	It increases

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
B	The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
C	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element
D	There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Insure that the generator is not grounded
C	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
D	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected

Figure G7-1