US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
B	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Universal Licensing System
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
B	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
C	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
D	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a different frequency
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed by card
B	Send slower
C	I acknowledge receipt
D	We have worked before

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	425 Hz

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Receiver
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Transmitter

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases peak power

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photosynthesis
C	Photon emission
D	Photon decomposition

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A length of transmission line
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	24 volts
C	12 volts
D	34 volts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 to 1
B	24.4 to 1
C	300 to 1
D	150 to 1

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To decrease plate resistance

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Better suited for RF amplification

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Audio fidelity is improved
B	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Discriminator
C	BFO
D	VFO

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	The number varies
C	8
D	7

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Shorten the radials
D	Lengthen the radials

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front to back ratio decreases
B	Front to side ratio decreases
C	Gain increases
D	Beamwidth increases

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

Figure G7-1