US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
D	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	50 feet
C	300 feet
D	200 feet

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	The Federal Communications Commission

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Closing station now
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	DSB
C	USB
D	LSB

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
B	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
C	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	SWR Bridge
B	Q Multiplier
C	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Receiver

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
B	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
C	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
D	Connect all equipment grounds together

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a conductance bridge
B	In a receiver
C	In a transmitter
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	200 watts
D	0.5 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	4.7 microfarads
B	47 microfarads
C	0.47 microfarads
D	47,000 microfarads

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Much less leakage than any other type

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Amplifier and antenna
B	Computer and transceiver
C	Power supply and amplifier
D	Microphone and transceiver

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Twice the transmission line impedance
B	Substantially lower
C	About the same
D	Substantially higher

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
B	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
C	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:4
C	1:2
D	4:1

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	11 feet

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The physical length of the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The number of elements on the boom

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring

Figure G7-1