US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "Q" signals are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only "10 codes" are permitted
D	They are not permitted

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Automatically controlled digital station
B	Fail-safe digital station
C	Locally controlled station
D	Robotically controlled station

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
D	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	SSB
C	LSB
D	USB

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	11 years
B	40 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
B	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To facilitate computer interface
D	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance of an antenna
B	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
C	The radiation pattern of an antenna
D	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon emission
B	Photovoltaic conversion
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the average of each branch current
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	175 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	150 ohms

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A field effect transistor
B	A varistor
C	A bipolar transistor
D	A tunnel diode

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency Counter
B	NAND Gate
C	Microprocessor
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	RF oscillator
C	Product detector
D	IF filter

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	BFO
C	Mixer
D	VFO

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and Space
B	Dot and Dash
C	On and Off
D	High and Low

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	5:1
C	1:5
D	50:1

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	11 feet

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the main lobe gain
B	To increase the front-to-back ratio
C	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
D	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
D	The total time of the exposure

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

Figure G7-1