US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 3
C	Region 1
D	All three regions

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
B	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Nets always have priority
B	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	QSOs in progress always have priority
D	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	AR
C	KN
D	SK

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communications are disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
B	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
C	To change frequency rapidly
D	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
C	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	Splatter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
C	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	34 volts

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A resistor in series
D	A resistor in parallel

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the beta of the transistor
B	To reduce stray capacitance
C	To improve the power dissipation capability
D	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It offers a wide dynamic range
B	It has a wide viewing angle
C	It requires ambient or back lighting
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Diodes

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	An analog to digital converter
C	A digital processor chip
D	All of the these choices are correct

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Volumetric
C	Viterbi
D	Varicode

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter Radials
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower ground reflection losses
D	Lower feed point impedance

32. - G9C03

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is normally the shortest element
B	The director is normally the shortest element
C	Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth
D	The driven element is the longest element

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High forward gain
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
C	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D	Acceptable modulation limits