US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	160 meters
D	17 meters

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	They are not permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
D	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English only
B	Any language recognized by the United Nations
C	The language being used for the contact
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Listening for novice stations
D	Operating full break-in

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink
B	Skywarn
C	ARES
D	RTTY

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	VOX operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A Q meter
B	A field strength meter
C	An antenna noise bridge
D	A multimeter

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
B	A noise limiter
C	Balanced mixing
D	Bandpass tuning

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
D	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
B	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 12 dB

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	3.3 millihenrys
C	30 millihenrys
D	3.3 henrys

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will become time dependent
B	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
C	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
D	It will stay the same

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	CW
C	SSB
D	AM

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Substantially higher
B	Twice the transmission line impedance
C	Substantially lower
D	About the same

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
B	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
C	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D	The entire file has been received correctly

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	80 and 100 ohms
B	500 and 750 ohms
C	50 and 75 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Polarization diversity

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 12

Figure G7-1