US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
B	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
D	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
B	A beacon station may not use automatic control
C	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It allows "hands free" operation
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
B	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Increase your power
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
D	Double hop propagation along the path is more common

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	They have very large swings in signal strength
C	They have a wavering sound
D	They have high intelligibility

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When adjusting tuned circuits
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When high precision is desired

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a transmitter
B	In an SWR bridge
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In a receiver

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
D	The antenna system

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
C	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
D	The inverse of resistance

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	200 watts
C	400 watts
D	3200 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in series
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	High voltage
C	High discharge current
D	Long life

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse Biased
B	Forward Biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Beyond cutoff

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
B	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By using the varicode character set
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	131 feet
C	84 feet
D	42 feet

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot