US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency end
D	The lower frequency end

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	30 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Fail-safe digital station
B	Robotically controlled station
C	Automatically controlled digital station
D	Locally controlled station

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It allows "hands free" operation
C	It provides more power output
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
B	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
C	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
D	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	We have already confirmed by card
C	Send slower
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from its short-path heading
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	Toward the rising Sun

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
B	The communication is during a sunspot maximum
C	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The transmitter signal is distorted
C	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
D	Frequent connection timeouts

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	An ohmmeter
D	A signal generator

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	25.9 percent
D	20.5 percent

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	A resistor in parallel

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce stray capacitance
B	To improve the power dissipation capability
C	To increase the beta of the transistor
D	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Resistor Operated Memory
B	Read Only Memory
C	Resistant to Overload Memory
D	Random Operational Memory

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class B
C	Class AB
D	Class A

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	The checksum overflows
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	3:1
B	6:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter Radials
B	Lower ground reflection losses
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower feed point impedance

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	2/3 wavelength
B	1/3 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with an S meter
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

Figure G7-1