US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	4005 kHz
B	3750 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
C	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When under automatic control
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 50 Hz
B	3 to 6 kHz
C	1 to 3 kHz
D	150 to 500 Hz

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	A slow speed until contact is established
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
C	The speed at which the CQ was sent
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	LSB
C	USB
D	DSB

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
B	To change frequency rapidly
C	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
D	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope uses less power
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	Input impedance is much lower

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
B	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
C	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
D	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Siemens
C	Farad
D	Ampere

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	173 volts
C	692 volts
D	346 volts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	0.07 millihenrys
C	14.3 millihenrys
D	1000 millihenrys

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
B	Its enhancement and depletion modes
C	Its saturation and cutoff regions
D	Its peak and valley current points

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for RF amplification

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	A digital to analog converter
C	A digital processor chip
D	All of the these choices are correct

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Varicode
C	Volumetric
D	Binary

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	1:4
C	1:2
D	2:1

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

32. - G9C03

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element is the longest element
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth
D	The director is normally the shortest element

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
B	A helical antenna for space reception
C	A vertical antenna
D	A broad-band mobile antenna

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
D	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
C	Insure that the generator is not grounded
D	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed

Figure G7-1