US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Identifying net frequencies
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
D	Observation of propagation and reception

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
B	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
B	Countries in ITU Region 2
C	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
D	Countries in ITU Region 1

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	Increase power to overcome interference
D	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Improved HF long path propagation
D	Reduced long delayed echoes

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	12,000 miles

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	VOX operation

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Linearity

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	Clearly audible speech
C	Distorted speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
B	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
C	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
D	The inverse of resistance

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	3200 watts
C	400 watts
D	0.5 watts

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
D	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
B	Its peak and valley current points
C	Its saturation and cutoff regions
D	Its enhancement and depletion modes

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
B	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
C	A computer on a single integrated circuit
D	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low standby power
B	Low distortion
C	High Efficiency
D	No need for bias

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	Substantially lower
C	Substantially higher
D	Twice the transmission line impedance

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Viterbi
C	Binary
D	Volumetric

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	6:1
B	1.5:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	3:1

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
C	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
D	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 12