US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1855 kHz
B	2560 kHz
C	3560 kHz
D	3650 kHz

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows "hands free" operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It provides more power output

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	Listening for novice stations
C	Operating full break-in
D	Closing station now

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A field strength meter
D	A wavemeter

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Bypass inductor
D	Reverse-biased diode

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
B	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
B	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
C	Increase the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert an LC network between the two circuits

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenrys
B	0.07 millihenrys
C	70 millihenrys
D	1000 millihenrys

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
B	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
C	It will become time dependent
D	It will stay the same

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A computer on a single integrated circuit
B	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
C	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
D	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Phase detector
C	Charge-coupled device
D	Microcontroller

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	IF amplifier
C	Mixer
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	VFO
C	BFO
D	Mixer

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	7
C	8
D	The number varies

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	84 feet
C	263 feet
D	131 feet

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
C	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They have poor harmonic rejection

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
B	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
C	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
D	Danger of engine over torque