US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14405 kHz
B	14305 kHz
C	14005 kHz
D	14105 kHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Never

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	50 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It provides more power output
C	It allows "hands free" operation
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
B	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	You are sending too fast

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Date and time of contact
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improved chances of UHF ducting
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved ground-wave propagation

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Path distance and location
D	Time of day and season

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
B	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
C	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The communication is during a sunspot maximum

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
B	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
C	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D	Determining the gain of a directional antenna

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In an SWR bridge
B	In a conductance bridge
C	In a transmitter
D	In a receiver

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 12 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	47 microfarads
B	47,000 microfarads
C	0.47 microfarads
D	4.7 microfarads

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type SMA
B	Type N
C	PL-259
D	DE-9

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Reactance modulator
C	Pre-emphasis network
D	Multiplier

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	2:1
C	50:1
D	5:1

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
C	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
D	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced