US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
B	During a declared communications emergency
C	To control a space station
D	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	General only
C	General and Technician
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
C	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
D	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
D	Send QRL in Morse code

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communications are disturbed
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
B	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
C	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
D	A vertical antenna

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
D	To increase overall efficiency

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
C	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.350 MHz

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photosynthesis
B	Photovoltaic conversion
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photon emission

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	A length of transmission line
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.5 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	25.9 percent

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High stability
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Tight tolerance

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Read Only Memory
B	Random Operational Memory
C	Resistant to Overload Memory
D	Resistor Operated Memory

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low standby power
B	No need for bias
C	Low distortion
D	High Efficiency

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	RF oscillator
C	Product detector
D	IF filter

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The RF clipping level
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Attenuator level
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	16 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	8 kHz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	The checksum overflows
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	50:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	At the center of the antenna
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Closer element spacing
D	Larger diameter elements

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit