US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3650 kHz
B	3560 kHz
C	1855 kHz
D	2560 kHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
D	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
D	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
B	A general call for any station
C	A distress call
D	The caller is listening for a station in Germany

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	BK
C	SK
D	AR

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
B	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
C	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Antenna and feed line
C	Transmitter
D	Receiver

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced mixing
B	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C	A noise limiter
D	Bandpass tuning

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a receiver
B	In a conductance bridge
C	In a transmitter
D	In an SWR bridge

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The RMS value

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	1000 millihenrys
D	0.07 millihenrys

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Screen Grid
C	Heater
D	Control grid

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Discriminator
C	Detector
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Excessive bandwidth

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	All of these choices are correct

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and Dash
B	On and Off
C	Mark and Space
D	High and Low

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B	Directional receiving for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis