US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are not permitted
C	Only "Q" signals are permitted
D	Only "10 codes" are permitted

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Key clicks
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
D	14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved chances of UHF ducting

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Double hop propagation along the path is more common

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	They have a wavering sound
B	They have high intelligibility
C	All of these choices are correct
D	They have very large swings in signal strength

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	SWR Bridge
B	Q Multiplier
C	Balanced modulator
D	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	A signal generator
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ohmmeter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To remove noise from received signals
B	To increase antenna bandwidth
C	To provide adequate grounding
D	To increase antenna gain

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.350 MHz

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B	To the battery using resistor wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
B	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	25.9 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	20.5 percent
D	12.2 percent

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
C	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the beta of the transistor
B	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
C	To reduce stray capacitance
D	To improve the power dissipation capability

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
B	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
C	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
D	A special connector for microwave interfacing

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	Filter
C	RF amplifier
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	The number varies
B	7
C	8
D	5

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	0:0
C	2:1
D	50:50

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Electrical safety inside the ham shack

Figure G7-1