US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	1875 kHz
C	4005 kHz
D	3900 kHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
C	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
D	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
B	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
B	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
C	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
D	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	Operating full break-in
C	Closing station now
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
D	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
B	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
C	To change frequency rapidly
D	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When high precision is desired

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.175 to 7.178 MHz

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The vehicle control computer
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The battery charging system
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The electrical load is shorted
B	No current can flow through the circuit
C	The source delivers minimum power to the load
D	The source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1060 watts
D	530 watts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	0.33 ohms
C	0.30 ohms
D	33.3 ohms

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A varistor
B	A field effect transistor
C	A bipolar transistor
D	A tunnel diode

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Multiplier
C	Pre-emphasis network
D	Mixer

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using the varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 1
B	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1 to 1
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	32 feet
C	16 feet
D	24 feet

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its frequency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground