US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.500 MHz
B	7.500 MHz
C	7.250 MHz
D	40.200 MHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The IEEE
C	The Control Operator
D	The ITU

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English, Spanish, French, or German
B	English only
C	Any language recognized by the United Nations
D	The language being used for the contact

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
C	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
D	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I acknowledge receipt
B	We have worked before
C	We have already confirmed by card
D	Send slower

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink
B	Skywarn
C	RTTY
D	ARES

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	14 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
D	Because it is the highest ionospheric region

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Clearly audible speech
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a receiver
B	In an SWR bridge
C	In a transmitter
D	In a conductance bridge

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To allow automatic band changing
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To allow remote tuning

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
B	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
C	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
D	Increase the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce stray capacitance
B	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
C	To increase the beta of the transistor
D	To improve the power dissipation capability

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	MMIC

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	IF amplifier
C	Discriminator
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	The checksum overflows
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
B	There is no change in polarization
C	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized
D	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	High forward gain
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
C	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 20

Figure G7-1