US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.250 MHz
B	7.500 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	40.500 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
B	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
C	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
D	Increase power to overcome interference

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
D	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	20 to 40 hours
D	14 days

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A length of transmission line
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1500 watts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	24.4 to 1
B	300 to 1
C	150 to 1
D	12.2 to 1

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Octal
B	RJ-11
C	PL-259
D	DB-25

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high power output
B	Relatively low power consumption
C	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
D	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	16 kHz

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	The number varies
C	7
D	8

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	At the center of the antenna
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
B	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
C	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To prevent out of band operation
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All of these choices are correct
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty