US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.020 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
B	Identifying net frequencies
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
B	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 to 500 Hz
B	3 to 6 kHz
C	5 to 50 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	I am quitting for the day

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink
B	RTTY
C	ARES
D	Skywarn

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E skip
B	Faraday rotation
C	Short-path skip
D	Scatter

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	A pronounced dip
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
D	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 4 times

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To allow automatic band changing
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To allow remote tuning

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The electrical load is shorted
B	The source delivers minimum power to the load
C	No current can flow through the circuit
D	The source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The RMS value

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	30 millihenrys
C	3.3 millihenrys
D	3.3 henrys

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High discharge current
C	High voltage
D	Rapid recharge

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microprocessor
B	Linear voltage regulator
C	Frequency Counter
D	NAND Gate

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microcontroller
B	Phase detector
C	Window comparator
D	Charge-coupled device

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, mixer, detector

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	BFO
C	Mixer
D	VFO

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	5
C	The number varies
D	8

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	All of these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	100 amperes
D	60 amperes