US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3650 kHz
B	2560 kHz
C	1855 kHz
D	3560 kHz

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
D	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
D	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Date and time of contact
C	Band and/or frequency of the contact
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
D	14.000 - 14.050 MHz

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
C	The Sun's rotation on its axis
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The E layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Transmitter power output
C	Received signal strength
D	Impedance

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
B	Increase the power output of the first circuit
C	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
D	Reduce the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	24 volts
C	34 volts
D	8.5 volts

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	The stored information cannot be changed once written
B	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
C	It is resistant to radiation damage
D	It is resistant to high temperatures

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High Efficiency
B	Low distortion
C	Low standby power
D	No need for bias

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Substantially lower
B	Substantially higher
C	About the same
D	Twice the transmission line impedance

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the varicode character set
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	3:1
B	6:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines