US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14105 kHz
B	14005 kHz
C	14405 kHz
D	14305 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The IEEE
C	The FCC
D	The Control Operator

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General only
B	Extra, General and Technician
C	General and Technician
D	Technician only

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When under automatic control
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When messages are not encrypted

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only on authorized HF frequencies
B	Only when transmitting in RACES
C	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
D	At any time during an actual emergency

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
C	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Long pauses in message transmission

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communications are improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
C	The radio is operating at half power
D	The transceiver is operating from an external power source

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A field strength meter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A wavemeter

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using resistor wire
B	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
C	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
B	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
C	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The reciprocal of the RMS value

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	70 millihenrys
D	14.3 millihenrys

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type SMA
B	Type N
C	DE-9
D	PL-259

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	AM
C	CW
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Balanced modulator
C	IF amplifier
D	Detector

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The version of the PSK protocol
B	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
C	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
D	The year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 1000 feet
B	Decibels per 100 feet
C	Ohms per 1000 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About 1.5 times as much
B	About 2/3 as much
C	About the same
D	About twice as much

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	The resistance of solder is too high
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike