US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1855 kHz
B	2560 kHz
C	3560 kHz
D	3650 kHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
B	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is a licensed amateur
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	AR
C	SK
D	BK

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from its short-path heading

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long Path propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
B	Microwave communications become unstable
C	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
D	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The E layer
C	The D layer
D	The F2 layer

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
C	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
D	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	Severely distorted audio

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
B	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
D	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
D	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	24 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	34 volts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Comparatively low cost

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Quartz crystals
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Diodes

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Phase detector
B	Microcontroller
C	Window comparator
D	Charge-coupled device

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Product detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency conversion

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
B	It terminates the contact
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 1
B	1 to 1
C	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Shorten the radials
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB higher
B	2.54 dB higher
C	About the same
D	3 dB lower

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	It has poor directivity
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its impedance is too low for effective matching

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit