US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
C	A beacon station may not use automatic control
D	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When under automatic control
C	When messages are encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A general call for any station
B	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
C	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D	A distress call

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Send QRL in Morse code

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	HF communications are improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communications are disturbed

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The D layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The transceiver is operating from an external power source

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope uses less power
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	Input impedance is much lower

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
B	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
D	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	1.414
C	1.00
D	0.707

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1733 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	3583 picofarads

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to each other
B	At right angles to each other
C	In line
D	Interleaved

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Diodes

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital processor chip
B	All of the these choices are correct
C	A digital to analog converter
D	An analog to digital converter

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
C	Audio fidelity is improved
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	2:1
C	50:1
D	1:5

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
C	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Directional transmitting for low HF bands

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Its power density
D	Its frequency

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder