US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "Q" signals are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are not permitted
D	Only "10 codes" are permitted

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	12 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only when transmitting in RACES
B	At any time during an actual emergency
C	Only on authorized HF frequencies
D	At any time when transmitting in an organized net

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The speed at which the CQ was sent
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	A slow speed until contact is established

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	A directional antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just above the LUF
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To slow down received CW signals for better copy

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two swept frequency tones
C	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To provide adequate grounding
B	To remove noise from received signals
C	To increase antenna gain
D	To increase antenna bandwidth

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The vehicle control computer
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The battery charging system
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.5 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	25.9 percent

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	150 to 1
B	24.4 to 1
C	300 to 1
D	12.2 to 1

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Heater
C	Screen Grid
D	Control grid

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response time
B	Longer life
C	Lower power consumption
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The RF clipping level
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Footer
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Preamble

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	0:0
B	2:1
C	1:1
D	50:50

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
B	At the center of the antenna
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out of band operation
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should limited to 10 feet in height
B	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
C	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 8