US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.350 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
B	During a declared communications emergency
C	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D	To control a space station

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Universal Licensing System

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Automatically controlled digital station
B	Locally controlled station
C	Robotically controlled station
D	Fail-safe digital station

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 to 500 Hz
B	1 to 3 kHz
C	3 to 6 kHz
D	5 to 50 Hz

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
C	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	An omnidirectional antenna

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	All of these choices are correct
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna
D	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	An antenna noise bridge
B	A Q meter
C	A field strength meter
D	A multimeter

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A10

What unit is used to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Watt
B	Ohm
C	Volt
D	Ampere

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.47 microfarads
B	4.7 microfarads
C	47 microfarads
D	47,000 microfarads

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	Rapid recharge
C	High voltage
D	Long life

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special connector for microwave interfacing
B	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
C	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
D	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microcontroller
B	Phase detector
C	Charge-coupled device
D	Window comparator

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Discriminator
C	IF amplifier
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials
C	Shorten the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The physical length of the boom
B	The spacing of each element along the boom
C	The number of elements on the boom
D	All of these choices are correct

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Directional receiving for low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded