US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	60 meters

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	To control a space station
B	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
C	During a declared communications emergency
D	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
B	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	365 days
C	30 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It allows "hands free" operation

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
C	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
D	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	Listening for novice stations
C	Closing station now
D	Operating full break-in

9. - G2D07

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of all third party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	All of these choices are correct.
D	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the MUF
B	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Distorted speech
D	Clearly audible speech

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A bipolar transistor
B	A tunnel diode
C	A field effect transistor
D	A varistor

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	All of these choices are correct
D	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High Efficiency
B	Low standby power
C	Low distortion
D	No need for bias

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase convolution
C	Angle convolution
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:5
C	5:1
D	50:1

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It decreases
C	It stays the same
D	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
C	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should limited to 10 feet in height
B	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
C	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 8
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 16