US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
B	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
C	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
D	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
C	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
B	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
C	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
D	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
B	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
C	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
D	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 50 Hz
B	3 to 6 kHz
C	150 to 500 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	Key clicks
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of out of band operation
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
C	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
D	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Transmitter
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Receiver

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced mixing
B	A noise limiter
C	Bandpass tuning
D	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Siemens
C	Ohm
D	Farad

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	0.707
C	1.00
D	2.00

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	175 ohms
B	150 ohms
C	1500 ohms
D	90 ohms

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
C	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor could overheat

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	RCA Phono
D	BNC

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class B
C	Class A
D	Class C

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital processor chip
B	A digital to analog converter
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	An analog to digital converter

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Angle convolution
C	Radian inversion
D	Phase convolution

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The version of the PSK protocol
B	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
C	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
D	The year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	100 ohms

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	2.54 dB higher
C	3 dB higher
D	3 dB lower

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	High forward gain
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
D	All of these choices are correct