US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	160 meters
C	17 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
B	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
D	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	100 percent copy
C	Key clicks
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
B	Improved HF long path propagation
C	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Reduced long delayed echoes

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	A signal generator
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To increase antenna bandwidth
C	To provide adequate grounding
D	To remove noise from received signals

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
D	The antenna system

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	60 watts
C	24 watts
D	2.4 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.30 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Lower capacitance
B	Lower inductance
C	Higher breakdown voltage
D	Longer switching times

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
B	A computer on a single integrated circuit
C	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
D	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	All of these choices are correct
C	SSB
D	AM

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
B	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and Dash
B	On and Off
C	Mark and Space
D	High and Low

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1.25:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	2.5:1

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	32 feet
B	24 feet
C	16 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Insure that the generator is not grounded
C	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
D	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected