US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency end
C	The upper frequency end
D	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
B	Countries in ITU Region 2
C	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
D	Countries in ITU Region 1

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows "hands free" operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It provides more power output

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power to overcome interference
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
D	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An omnidirectional antenna
B	A directional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	SSB
C	LSB
D	DSB

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
D	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E skip
B	Faraday rotation
C	Scatter
D	Short-path skip

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	A transformer
C	A length of transmission line
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 volts
B	540 volts
C	26.7 volts
D	2370 volts

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
B	To improve the power dissipation capability
C	To reduce stray capacitance
D	To increase the beta of the transistor

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The checksum overflows
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded