US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	4005 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	Only "Q" signals are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	Only "10 codes" are permitted

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	General and Technician
C	Extra, General and Technician
D	General only

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English, Spanish, French, or German
B	The language being used for the contact
C	English only
D	Any language recognized by the United Nations

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Sending without error
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	Along the gray line
D	180 degrees from its short-path heading

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
B	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
C	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
D	The E-region is not present

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
B	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
C	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
D	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	A wavemeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A field strength meter

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Clearly audible speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Distorted speech

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
C	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A Pi-network
D	A transformer

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	625 watts
C	2500 watts
D	8.75 watts

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A resistor in parallel
C	An inductor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To decrease plate resistance

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Forward Biased
C	Reverse Biased
D	Beyond cutoff

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	The connection is dropped
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	75 ohms

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Shorten the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
C	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	As close to one wavelength as possible
C	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
D	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It causes radiation poisoning
C	It heats body tissue
D	It cools body tissue

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground

Figure G7-1