US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	28.350 MHz
C	28.550 MHz
D	All of these choices are correct

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	300 feet

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
B	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
C	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
D	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	100 percent copy
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	180 degrees from its short-path heading
C	Toward the rising Sun
D	Toward the north

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Send QRL in Morse code

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	11 years

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
B	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	They have high intelligibility
B	They have very large swings in signal strength
C	All of these choices are correct
D	They have a wavering sound

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive drive power
B	Low input SWR
C	Insufficient drive power
D	Shorting the input signal to ground

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An antenna noise bridge
C	A multimeter
D	A Q meter

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
B	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
D	Adding series capacitors to the conductors

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Splatter
C	Distorted speech
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
B	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	6 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	90 ohms
C	1500 ohms
D	175 ohms

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Higher breakdown voltage
B	Longer switching times
C	Lower inductance
D	Lower capacitance

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Longer life
B	Faster response time
C	Lower power consumption
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Twice the transmission line impedance
B	Substantially lower
C	Substantially higher
D	About the same

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The checksum overflows
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Shorten the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Electrical safety inside the ham shack

Figure G7-1