US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	60 meters

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Key clicks
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
D	A vertical antenna

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To change frequency rapidly
B	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
C	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
D	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Receiver
C	Transmitter
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass inductor

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Transmitter power output
C	Impedance
D	Conductance

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photon emission
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The electrical load is shorted
B	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	The source delivers minimum power to the load
D	No current can flow through the circuit

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	625 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	175 ohms
B	150 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	1500 ohms

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A field effect transistor
B	A varistor
C	A bipolar transistor
D	A tunnel diode

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency Counter
B	Microprocessor
C	NAND Gate
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
B	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
C	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	BFO
C	Discriminator
D	VFO

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	On and Off
C	Dot and Dash
D	Mark and Space

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	At the center of the antenna

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
C	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
D	As close to one wavelength as possible

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 8

Figure G7-1