US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only "10 codes" are permitted
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
D	Information must be exchanged in English

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Change frequency
C	Send slower
D	Repeat everything twice

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Send QRL in Morse code

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
C	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The D layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
B	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
D	Determining the gain of a directional antenna

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
B	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.181 MHz

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B	To allow remote tuning
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To allow automatic band changing

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To maximize the transfer of power

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	625 watts
D	5000 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A resistor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
B	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
C	Never
D	When a constant current charger is used

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microprocessor
B	Linear voltage regulator
C	Frequency Counter
D	NAND Gate

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Quartz crystals
C	Diodes
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Balanced modulator
C	Detector
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Header
C	Footer
D	Preamble

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation increases

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front to side ratio decreases
B	Front to back ratio decreases
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Gain increases

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
B	Directional receiving for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Directional transmitting for low HF bands

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	The resistance of solder is too high
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection