US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	20 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

3. - G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	365 days
C	30 days
D	180 days

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	Information must be exchanged in English
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
D	The control operator must have at least a General Class license

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
B	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
C	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
D	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Stop sending
D	Send more slowly

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Identification of out of band operation
D	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
D	The transceiver is operating from an external power source

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To remove noise from received signals
C	To increase antenna bandwidth
D	To provide adequate grounding

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	No current can flow through the circuit
B	The source delivers minimum power to the load
C	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	The electrical load is shorted

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the average of each branch current
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in parallel
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A resistor in series
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
B	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
C	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Balanced modulator
C	Mixer
D	Detector

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	16 kHz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	The checksum overflows
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	1 to 1
C	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	5 to 1

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials
B	Shorten the radials
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	2/3 wavelength
C	1/3 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
B	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
C	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
D	As close to one wavelength as possible

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

Figure G7-1