US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
D	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
B	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	All of these choices are correct
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	CW
C	DSB
D	LSB

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improved ground-wave propagation
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved chances of UHF ducting

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
B	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
B	Where the Sun has just set
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
B	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
C	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
D	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
D	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To allow automatic band changing
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To allow remote tuning

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ohm
C	Siemens
D	Ampere

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	4.7 microfarads
B	47 microfarads
C	47,000 microfarads
D	0.47 microfarads

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Heater
B	Trigger electrode
C	Control grid
D	Screen Grid

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-11
B	DB-25
C	PL-259
D	Octal

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	3
C	16
D	8

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	IF filter
C	Balanced modulator
D	Product detector

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
B	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using the varicode character set

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation decreases

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms
B	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C	To increase the main lobe gain
D	To increase the front-to-back ratio

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic suppression
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Polarization diversity
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All of these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	All wires
C	Only the neutral wire
D	Only the two wires carrying voltage

Figure G7-1