US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	60 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Identifying net frequencies

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is a licensed amateur
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed by card
B	Send slower
C	We have worked before
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
B	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	Winlink
C	Skywarn
D	ARES

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
D	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When testing logic circuits

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Severely distorted audio

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	1.414
C	2.00
D	0.707

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	2370 volts
B	540 volts
C	26.7 volts
D	5.9 volts

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
D	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	NAND Gate
B	Microprocessor
C	Frequency Counter
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	16
D	8

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single sideband

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Phase inverting
C	Heterodyning
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and Dash
B	Mark and Space
C	High and Low
D	On and Off

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
B	3:1
C	6:1
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Shorten the radials
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the front-to-back ratio
B	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms
D	To increase the main lobe gain

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded