US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3560 kHz
B	1855 kHz
C	2560 kHz
D	3650 kHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
C	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
D	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
B	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
B	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
C	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Long pauses in message transmission

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	40 hours
C	28 days
D	11 years

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
B	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
C	The radiation resistance of an antenna
D	The radiation pattern of an antenna

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
D	To the battery using resistor wire

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It equals the average of each branch current
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	300 to 1
B	24.4 to 1
C	12.2 to 1
D	150 to 1

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	1.0 volts
C	0.3 volts
D	0.7 volts

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Read Only Memory
B	Random Operational Memory
C	Resistor Operated Memory
D	Resistant to Overload Memory

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Microcontroller
C	Charge-coupled device
D	Phase detector

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital to analog converter
B	An analog to digital converter
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	A digital processor chip

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Footer
C	Directory
D	Preamble

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	0:0
C	50:50
D	1:1

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
D	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out of band operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds