US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
D	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
D	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A distress call
B	A general call for any station
C	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
D	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	I am troubled by static
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Send more slowly

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	85 Hz

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	11 years
D	40 hours

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are bent back to the Earth
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is overhead
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun has just set
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance of an antenna
B	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
C	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
D	The radiation pattern of an antenna

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 12 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A resistor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Rapid recharge
C	Long life
D	High discharge current

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	Product detector
C	IF filter
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Varicode
C	Binary
D	Volumetric

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
C	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

Figure G7-1