US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
B	During a declared communications emergency
C	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
D	To control a space station

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
B	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
C	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
D	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
C	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
C	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	A well-defined echo might be heard
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun has just set
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An antenna noise bridge
C	A multimeter
D	A Q meter

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
C	The antenna system
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the average of each branch current
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	0.30 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	300 microfarads

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its enhancement and depletion modes
B	Its peak and valley current points
C	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
D	Its saturation and cutoff regions

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Quartz crystals
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, mixer, detector

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Radian inversion
B	Phase modulation
C	Phase convolution
D	Angle convolution

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	All of these choices are correct

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Viterbi
C	Volumetric
D	Binary

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:50
B	0:0
C	2:1
D	1:1

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Shorter Radials
D	Lower ground reflection losses

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A broad-band mobile antenna
B	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
C	A helical antenna for space reception
D	A vertical antenna

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Its power density
C	Its frequency
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines