US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A distress call
B	A general call for any station
C	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D	The caller is listening for a station in Germany

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
B	At any time during an actual emergency
C	Only when transmitting in RACES
D	Only on authorized HF frequencies

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A directional antenna

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
C	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The D layer
C	The E layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A pronounced dip
C	A pronounced peak
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When high precision is desired

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon emission
B	Photovoltaic conversion
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A10

What unit is used to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Volt
C	Ampere
D	Watt

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	20.5 percent
D	10.9 percent

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	14.3 millihenrys
D	0.07 millihenrys

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	Long life
C	High discharge current
D	High voltage

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It offers a wide dynamic range
B	It requires ambient or back lighting
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It has a wide viewing angle

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, mixer, detector

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using the varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:1
B	5:1
C	1:5
D	2:1

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To permit multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It cools body tissue
D	It heats body tissue

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

Figure G7-1