US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3900 kHz
B	1875 kHz
C	4005 kHz
D	3750 kHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
B	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Federal Communications Commission

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress always have priority
B	Nets always have priority
C	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
D	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Listening for novice stations
D	Operating full break-in

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Long Path propagation

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the LUF
B	Select a frequency just below the MUF
C	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A vertical antenna
D	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photosynthesis
B	Photon emission
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photovoltaic conversion

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	625 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	90 ohms
C	175 ohms
D	150 ohms

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Heater
B	Trigger electrode
C	Control grid
D	Screen Grid

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	Type SMA
C	PL-259
D	DE-9

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
B	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
C	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Footer
C	Header
D	Directory

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	0:0
B	50:50
C	2:1
D	1:1

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	As high as possible above the ground
B	At the center of the antenna
C	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger diameter elements
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Closer element spacing

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty