US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.200 MHz
B	40.500 MHz
C	7.500 MHz
D	7.250 MHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	Only "Q" signals are permitted
C	Only "10 codes" are permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the north
C	180 degrees from its short-path heading
D	Toward the rising Sun

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	SSB
D	USB

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communications are disturbed
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	A well-defined echo might be heard
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Linearity

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	Distorted speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
C	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
D	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	22 nF
B	2.2 nF
C	220 nF
D	0.22 nF

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
B	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
C	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor could overheat

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A computer on a single integrated circuit
B	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
C	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
D	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverter
B	Product detector
C	Mixer
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
B	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	BFO
B	VFO
C	Mixer
D	Discriminator

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
D	Upper case letters make the signal stronger

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	3:1
B	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
C	6:1
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials
B	Shorten the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Slope the radials upward

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	It has poor directivity
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its impedance is too low for effective matching

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Its duty cycle
D	Its power density

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	Electrical safety inside the ham shack