US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	24900 kHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	12 years
B	There is no age limit
C	21 years
D	18 years

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A distress call
B	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
C	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D	A general call for any station

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
B	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Send more slowly
C	I am troubled by static
D	Zero beat my signal

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low power transmit operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3500 - 3525 kHz
B	3570 - 3600 kHz
C	3700 - 3750 kHz
D	3775 - 3825 kHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	HF communications are improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent connection timeouts
B	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The transmitter signal is distorted

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
B	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
D	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Transmitter power output
C	Impedance
D	Received signal strength

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow remote tuning
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To allow automatic band changing

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	173 volts
B	346 volts
C	692 volts
D	245 volts

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A resistor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the beta of the transistor
B	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
C	To reduce stray capacitance
D	To improve the power dissipation capability

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Resistant to Overload Memory
B	Random Operational Memory
C	Read Only Memory
D	Resistor Operated Memory

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An analog mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively high power output
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Cancellation
B	Synthesizing
C	Heterodyning
D	Phase inverting

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Directory
C	Header
D	Footer

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	131 feet

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
B	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C	To increase the main lobe gain
D	To increase the front-to-back ratio

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
C	It has poor directivity
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

Figure G7-1