US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end
B	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency end

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
C	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
D	Monitor the frequency before transmitting

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Approximately 3 kHz
C	Between 150 and 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
D	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Send an email to the system control operator

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	All of these choices are correct.

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Q Multiplier
B	SWR Bridge
C	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Better for RF measurements
D	Better precision for most uses

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
C	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Siemens
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The RMS value
D	The peak value

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A resistor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Lower capacitance
B	Lower inductance
C	Higher breakdown voltage
D	Longer switching times

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Computer and transceiver
B	Microphone and transceiver
C	Power supply and amplifier
D	Amplifier and antenna

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class AB
C	Class A
D	Class C

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	Product detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Angle convolution
C	Radian inversion
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Footer

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation decreases

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The physical length of the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The number of elements on the boom

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis