US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
D	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
B	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Universal Licensing System
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
D	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Single sideband

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
B	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Identification of out of band operation
D	Identification of different call signs

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	850 Hz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	HF communications are improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just above the LUF
C	Select a frequency just below the MUF
D	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C	All of these choices are correct
D	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Splatter
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

19. - G5A10

What unit is used to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Watt
B	Ohm
C	Volt
D	Ampere

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	34 volts

21. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1000 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	0.07 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A field effect transistor
B	A bipolar transistor
C	A varistor
D	A tunnel diode

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	SSB
C	All of these choices are correct
D	CW

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high power output
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Frequency drift

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Preamble
C	Footer
D	Directory

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	1 to 1
C	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	5 to 1

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower radiation resistance
B	Lower ground reflection losses
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Shorter Radials

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About twice as much
B	About 1.5 times as much
C	About 2/3 as much
D	About the same

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To permit multiband operation
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C	Wear a radiation badge
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	100 amperes
B	60 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	30 amperes

Figure G7-1