US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	3900 kHz
C	4005 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The Control Operator
C	The ITU
D	The IEEE

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	3 kHz

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
B	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of out of band operation
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	SSB
C	DSB
D	LSB

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Path distance and location
D	Time of day and season

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Propagation near the MUF

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Receiver
D	Transmitter

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.350 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	20.5 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	25.9 percent

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
B	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A field effect transistor
B	A tunnel diode
C	A varistor
D	A bipolar transistor

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	High power handling capability
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Diodes
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Quartz crystals

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High Efficiency
B	No need for bias
C	Low standby power
D	Low distortion

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
B	Relatively high power output
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using the varicode character set

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:1
B	5:1
C	2:1
D	1:5

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	At the center of the antenna
C	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the main lobe gain
B	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C	To increase the front-to-back ratio
D	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
B	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
C	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D	Danger of engine over torque