US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.500 MHz
B	40.500 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	7.250 MHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	300 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Locally controlled station
B	Fail-safe digital station
C	Automatically controlled digital station
D	Robotically controlled station

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
D	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

8. - G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am ready to receive messages
D	I am quitting for the day

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An omnidirectional antenna
B	A directional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
B	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequent connection timeouts
C	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
D	The transmitter signal is distorted

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
C	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	Fewer digital components are required

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
D	14.344 to 14.347 MHz

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
B	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
C	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
D	The inverse of resistance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 12 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenrys
B	30 millihenrys
C	3.3 henrys
D	0.30 henrys

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Longer life
B	Lower power consumption
C	Faster response time
D	All of these choices are correct

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	RF oscillator
C	Product detector
D	IF filter

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Mixer interference
C	Quadrature noise
D	Intermediate interference

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The checksum overflows
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	1 to 1
D	5 to 1

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	2/3 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1/3 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	A receiver with an S meter
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
C	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire

Figure G7-1