US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
B	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
C	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
D	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Universal Licensing System

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Countries in ITU Region 1
B	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
C	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
D	Countries in ITU Region 2

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Low power transmit operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	LSB
C	DSB
D	SSB

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Scatter
C	Sporadic-E skip
D	Short-path skip

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	Standing wave ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	RF interference

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To maximize the transfer of power

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It equals the average of each branch current
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	150 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	175 ohms

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will become time dependent
B	It will stay the same
C	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
D	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Phase detector
C	Microcontroller
D	Charge-coupled device

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	IF amplifier
C	Detector
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Angle convolution
C	Phase modulation
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Heterodyning
C	Phase inverting
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	11 feet
C	8 feet
D	21 feet

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Harmonic suppression

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	All of these choices are correct