US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14305 kHz
B	14105 kHz
C	14005 kHz
D	14405 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The FCC
C	The IEEE
D	The Control Operator

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	12 years
B	There is no age limit
C	18 years
D	21 years

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	The control operator must have at least a General Class license

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
C	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I acknowledge receipt
B	We have worked before
C	Send slower
D	We have already confirmed by card

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the rising Sun
D	180 degrees from its short-path heading

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long Path propagation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Overmodulation

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	Ripples in the ionosphere
B	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
C	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
B	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The E layer
D	The D layer

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Forward-biased diode

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The vehicle control computer
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The battery charging system

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	No current can flow through the circuit
B	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	The electrical load is shorted
D	The source delivers minimum power to the load

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the average of each branch current
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
D	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	All of these choices are correct

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
B	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
B	Relatively high power output
C	Relatively low power consumption
D	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	Dot and Dash
C	On and Off
D	Mark and Space

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	500 and 750 ohms
B	25 and 30 ohms
C	80 and 100 ohms
D	50 and 75 ohms

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
B	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized
C	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
D	There is no change in polarization

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to one wavelength as possible
B	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
C	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
D	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its duty cycle
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its power density

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
C	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
D	All of these choices are correct