US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Observation of propagation and reception
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Identifying net frequencies
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	30 days
D	365 days

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3570 - 3600 kHz
B	3775 - 3825 kHz
C	3700 - 3750 kHz
D	3500 - 3525 kHz

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
B	Another name for the American sunspot number
C	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
D	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	A well-defined echo might be heard
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
B	Where the Sun is rising
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun has just set

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
B	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
C	To change frequency rapidly
D	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	An antenna noise bridge
B	A multimeter
C	A field strength meter
D	A Q meter

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	A chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	5000 watts
D	625 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenrys
B	0.30 henrys
C	3.3 henrys
D	30 millihenrys

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Screen Grid
C	Heater
D	Control grid

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
B	The stored information cannot be changed once written
C	It is resistant to radiation damage
D	It is resistant to high temperatures

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Filter

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A code using error detection and correction

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out of band operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	The resistance of solder is too high

Figure G7-1