US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14305 kHz
B	14005 kHz
C	14105 kHz
D	14405 kHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	300 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Fail-safe digital station
B	Robotically controlled station
C	Automatically controlled digital station
D	Locally controlled station

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 3 kHz
B	5 to 50 Hz
C	3 to 6 kHz
D	150 to 500 Hz

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communications are improved
C	HF communications are disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
B	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	SWR Bridge
B	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
C	Q Multiplier
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	Radio wave propagation
C	Standing wave ratio
D	RF interference

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The battery charging system
C	The fuel delivery system
D	The vehicle control computer

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The source delivers minimum power to the load
B	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	No current can flow through the circuit
D	The electrical load is shorted

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	34 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenrys
B	3.3 henrys
C	30 millihenrys
D	0.30 henrys

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will become time dependent
B	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
C	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
D	It will stay the same

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Lower power consumption
B	Faster response time
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Longer life

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Charge-coupled device
C	Phase detector
D	Microcontroller

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Substantially higher
B	Twice the transmission line impedance
C	About the same
D	Substantially lower

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	The RF clipping level

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	Dot and Dash
C	Mark and Space
D	On and Off

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	3:1
B	1.5:1
C	6:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	As high as possible above the ground
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	At the center of the antenna
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/3 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the two wires carrying voltage
C	All wires
D	Only the neutral wire