US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	21300 kHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Robotically controlled station
B	Automatically controlled digital station
C	Locally controlled station
D	Fail-safe digital station

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It allows "hands free" operation
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 3 kHz
B	5 to 50 Hz
C	3 to 6 kHz
D	150 to 500 Hz

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening for novice stations
B	Closing station now
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Operating full break-in

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low power transmit operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
B	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
C	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Shorting the input signal to ground
B	Insufficient drive power
C	Excessive drive power
D	Low input SWR

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	An external RF oscillator

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	The electrical load is shorted
B	No current can flow through the circuit
C	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	The source delivers minimum power to the load

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenrys
B	3.3 henrys
C	30 millihenrys
D	0.30 henrys

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
B	Its enhancement and depletion modes
C	Its peak and valley current points
D	Its saturation and cutoff regions

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse Biased
B	Beyond cutoff
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Forward Biased

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	Balanced modulator
C	Product detector
D	IF filter

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Footer
C	Preamble
D	Header

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	50 and 75 ohms

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	11 feet
C	21 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The director is normally the longest element
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	The reflector is normally the longest element
D	All of the elements must be the same length

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for low HF bands
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines