US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency end
C	The upper frequency end
D	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are not permitted
C	Only "10 codes" are permitted
D	Only "Q" signals are permitted

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Automatically controlled digital station
B	Locally controlled station
C	Robotically controlled station
D	Fail-safe digital station

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
C	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	BK
C	AR
D	KN

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	ARES
C	Winlink
D	Skywarn

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 layer
B	The D layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Input impedance is much lower
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Clearly audible speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Distorted speech

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
C	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 12 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 ohms
B	33.3 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	0.33 ohms

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce stray capacitance
B	To improve the power dissipation capability
C	To increase the beta of the transistor
D	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground

23. - G6B16

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B10

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low distortion
B	Low standby power
C	No need for bias
D	High Efficiency

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively high power output
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It requests the packet be retransmitted
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	300 ohms

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
C	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis