US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Identifying net frequencies
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
D	Observation of propagation and reception

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When messages are encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

Select	Answer
A	Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
B	Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
C	Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
D	Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
B	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
C	The speed at which the CQ was sent
D	A slow speed until contact is established

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
D	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The E layer
C	The D layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequent connection timeouts
C	The transmitter signal is distorted
D	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Input impedance is much lower
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In a transmitter
B	In an SWR bridge
C	In a conductance bridge
D	In a receiver

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To allow automatic band changing
D	To allow remote tuning

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 12 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Mutual inductance
D	Mutual capacitance

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will become time dependent
B	It will stay the same
C	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
D	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
B	A computer on a single integrated circuit
C	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
D	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Relatively high power output
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	The RF clipping level
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Pre-emphasis network
C	Multiplier
D	Mixer

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The checksum overflows
C	The connection is dropped
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About 2/3 as much
B	About 1.5 times as much
C	About the same
D	About twice as much

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot