US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	11 meters

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	Only "10 codes" are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only "Q" signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
B	Nets always have priority
C	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress always have priority

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An omnidirectional antenna
B	A directional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	All of these choices are correct
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improved chances of UHF ducting
C	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved ground-wave propagation

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
C	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
D	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
B	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

15. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Antenna and feed line

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
B	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.181 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
C	The antenna system
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
B	Increase the power output of the first circuit
C	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
D	Reduce the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	400 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	150 to 1
B	12.2 to 1
C	24.4 to 1
D	300 to 1

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Comparatively low cost

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	DE-9
C	Type SMA
D	Type N

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class C
C	Class A
D	Class AB

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	IF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	Filter

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Simpler receiving equipment can be used

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	All of these choices are correct

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
B	The version of the PSK protocol
C	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
D	The year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2.5:1
B	2:1
C	1.25:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter Radials
B	Lower ground reflection losses
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower feed point impedance

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	All of these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the generator is not grounded
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed