US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.250 MHz
B	7.500 MHz
C	40.500 MHz
D	40.200 MHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Never

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
C	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
D	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
B	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Change to a different frequency
C	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	LSB
C	DSB
D	USB

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
B	At the summer solstice
C	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D	At any point in the solar cycle

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
D	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better precision for most uses
B	Faster response
C	Better for RF measurements
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	Distorted speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	The antenna system
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	14.3 millihenrys
D	0.07 millihenrys

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High voltage
C	Rapid recharge
D	High discharge current

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response time
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Longer life
D	Lower power consumption

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	8
C	3
D	6

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	HF oscillator, mixer, detector

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature noise
B	Image response
C	Intermediate interference
D	Mixer interference

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and Dash
B	On and Off
C	Mark and Space
D	High and Low

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation increases

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	84 feet
C	131 feet
D	42 feet

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	2/3 wavelength
B	1/3 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It cools body tissue
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 16

Figure G7-1