US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English only
B	Any language recognized by the United Nations
C	The language being used for the contact
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
B	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	KN
C	BK
D	AR

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from its short-path heading
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
B	At the summer solstice
C	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
D	At any point in the solar cycle

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
C	The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
B	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The communication is during a sunspot maximum

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To facilitate computer interface
D	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It decreases battery consumption in the meter

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Received signal strength
C	Transmitter power output
D	Conductance

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
C	To the battery using resistor wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

21. - G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	300 to 1
B	12.2 to 1
C	150 to 1
D	24.4 to 1

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Control grid
C	Heater
D	Screen Grid

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	It is resistant to radiation damage
B	The stored information cannot be changed once written
C	It is resistant to high temperatures
D	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	All of these choices are correct

25. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	SSB
C	CW
D	AM

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inverter
B	Mixer
C	Product detector
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Angle convolution
B	Radian inversion
C	Phase convolution
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	2300 Hz
B	31.5 Hz
C	500 Hz
D	1800 Hz

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	Mark and Space
C	On and Off
D	Dot and Dash

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
D	Attenuation increases

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C03

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The director is normally the shortest element
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	The driven element is the longest element
D	Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency