US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	In conformance with the rules of the IARU
B	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
C	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	General and Technician
C	General only
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 kHz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	Approximately 10 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	180 degrees from its short-path heading
C	Toward the rising Sun
D	Toward the north

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
B	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
C	The Sun's rotation on its axis
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun is rising
B	Where the Sun has just set
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A multimeter
B	A Q meter
C	An antenna noise bridge
D	A field strength meter

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photon emission
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
C	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	100 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	1500 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	175 ohms

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A tunnel diode
B	A field effect transistor
C	A varistor
D	A bipolar transistor

23. - G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

Select	Answer
A	It is resistant to radiation damage
B	The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
C	The stored information cannot be changed once written
D	It is resistant to high temperatures

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Phase detector
C	Charge-coupled device
D	Microcontroller

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	Substantially lower
C	Twice the transmission line impedance
D	Substantially higher

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	The RF clipping level

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	416.7 Hz
D	60 kHz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	2:1
C	50:50
D	0:0

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
C	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

Figure G7-1