US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	60 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Extra, General and Technician
B	Technician only
C	General only
D	General and Technician

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
B	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
C	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
D	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed by card
B	Send slower
C	I acknowledge receipt
D	We have worked before

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

11. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
C	The Sun's rotation on its axis
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Input impedance is much lower
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The antenna system
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1500 watts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 ohms
B	0.33 ohms
C	0.30 ohms
D	300 ohms

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	DE-9
C	PL-259
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
B	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
C	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
D	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	31.5 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Volumetric

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	32 feet

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Front to side ratio decreases
C	Front to back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It has poor directivity
C	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
D	Its impedance is too low for effective matching

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires

Figure G7-1