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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A12 meters
B30 meters
C20 meters
D160 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

SelectAnswer
A200 feet
B50 feet
C300 feet
D100 feet

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A50 watts PEP output
B1500 watts PEP output
CAn effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

SelectAnswer
AOnly persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
BAnyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
CAny person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
DAny person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

SelectAnswer
AUnder no circumstances
BWhen messages are encrypted
CWhen messages are not encrypted
DWhen under automatic control

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
AEase of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
BLess bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
CLess subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
DVery high fidelity voice modulation

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

SelectAnswer
AOnly frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
BOnly frequencies that are within your operating privileges
COnly frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
DWhichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
BAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
CThe speed at which the CQ was sent
DA slow speed until contact is established

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

SelectAnswer
ATraffic relay procedure net operation
BLow power transmit operation
CRemote piloted model control
DTransmission using Quick Response Protocol

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

SelectAnswer
AYou may have selected the wrong baud rate
BThe mark and space frequencies may be reversed
CAll of these choices are correct
DYou may be listening on the wrong sideband

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

SelectAnswer
ARipples in the ionosphere
BA thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
CA temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
DA sudden drop in the solar flux index

12. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

SelectAnswer
AThe Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
BThe Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
CThe Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
DThe Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BThey have high intelligibility
CThey have a wavering sound
DThey have very large swings in signal strength

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

SelectAnswer
ATo restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
BTo enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
CTo eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
DTo reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

SelectAnswer
AIt decreases battery consumption in the meter
BIt improves the frequency response
CIt improves the resolution of the readings
DIt decreases the loading on circuits being measured

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

SelectAnswer
ABandpass tuning
BBalanced mixing
CA noise limiter
DA Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 8 times
BApproximately 4 times
CApproximately 1.5 times
DApproximately 2 times

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

SelectAnswer
ATo the battery using heavy gauge wire
BTo the battery using resistor wire
CTo the alternator or generator using resistor wire
DTo the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

SelectAnswer
AA large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
BA property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
COpposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
DOpposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

20. - G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

SelectAnswer
A0.707
B1.414
C1.00
D2.00

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

SelectAnswer
A22 nF
B0.22 nF
C220 nF
D2.2 nF

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

SelectAnswer
AThe magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
BAll of these choices are correct
CMost of the magnetic field is contained in the core
DLarge values of inductance may be obtained

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BIt requires ambient or back lighting
CIt offers a wide dynamic range
DIt has a wide viewing angle

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

SelectAnswer
AOne-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
BDouble the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
CHalf the normal output voltage of the power supply
DEqual to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AA Class C high efficiency amplifier
BAn amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
CAny RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
DAn amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

SelectAnswer
AHF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
BHF oscillator, mixer, detector
CRF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
DRF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

SelectAnswer
AAmplitude modulation
BFrequency modulation
CFrequency shift keying
DPhase modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

SelectAnswer
AIt results in the best signal to noise ratio
BIt is required by FCC rules
CIt improves impedance matching of the antenna
DIt minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

SelectAnswer
AClover
BRTTY
CJT9 and JT65
DFSK441 and Hellschreiber

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

SelectAnswer
A2:1
B50:50
C1:1
D0:0

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

SelectAnswer
AIt steadily increases
BIt is unaffected by the height above ground
CIt steadily decreases
DIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
ABeamwidth increases
BGain increases
CFront to side ratio decreases
DFront to back ratio decreases

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA broad-band mobile antenna
BA very long and low directional receiving antenna
CA helical antenna for space reception
DA vertical antenna

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
AHigh duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
BA lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
CA higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
DLow duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
BBends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
CThey must be bonded together with all other grounds
DLightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring