US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.200 MHz
B	40.500 MHz
C	7.250 MHz
D	7.500 MHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
B	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
C	To control a space station
D	During a declared communications emergency

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	All of these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It allows "hands free" operation
C	It provides more power output
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	BK
C	SK
D	KN

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Along the gray line
C	180 degrees from its short-path heading
D	Toward the rising Sun

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improved ground-wave propagation
C	Improved chances of UHF ducting
D	Improved high-latitude HF propagation

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Path distance and location
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B	The E-region is not present
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low input SWR
B	Insufficient drive power
C	Shorting the input signal to ground
D	Excessive drive power

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass inductor

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To maximize the transfer of power
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize transmitter power output

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	24 volts
D	12 volts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	150 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	175 ohms

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The capacitor could overheat and explode

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Random Operational Memory
B	Resistor Operated Memory
C	Read Only Memory
D	Resistant to Overload Memory

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	All of these choices are correct

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By using direct signal phasing
B	By differential spurious phasing
C	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
D	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	The checksum overflows
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB higher
B	2.54 dB higher
C	About the same
D	3 dB lower

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with an S meter
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable modulation limits
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	Electrical safety inside the ham shack