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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
B28.350 MHz
C28.550 MHz
D28.020 MHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

SelectAnswer
AThe ITU
BThe Control Operator
CThe IEEE
DThe FCC

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

SelectAnswer
A100 watts PEP output
B1000 watts PEP output
C1500 watts PEP output
D2000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

SelectAnswer
AOnly persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
BAny person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
CAny person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
DAnyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
BNo third party traffic maybe be transmitted
CThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
DThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency modulation
BPhase modulation
CSingle sideband
DDouble sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

SelectAnswer
AOnly frequencies that are within your operating privileges
BOnly frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
CWhichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
DOnly frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

SelectAnswer
ASend slower
BI acknowledge receipt
CWe have worked before
DWe have already confirmed by card

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

SelectAnswer
ATo coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
BTo provide emergency and public safety communications
CTo conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
DTo encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

SelectAnswer
AThe mark and space frequencies may be reversed
BYou may have selected the wrong baud rate
CYou may be listening on the wrong sideband
DAll of these choices are correct

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

SelectAnswer
AHigh-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
BFrequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
CLong-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
DMicrowave communications become unstable

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

SelectAnswer
AListen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
BCheck the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
CSend a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
DCheck the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe long path azimuth of a distant station
BThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
CThe short path azimuth of a distant station
DThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
ASWR Bridge
BQ Multiplier
CBalanced modulator
DAntenna coupler or antenna tuner

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

SelectAnswer
AFaster response
BBetter for measuring computer circuits
CBetter for RF measurements
DBetter precision for most uses

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
BClearly audible speech
CDistorted speech
DOn-and-off humming or clicking

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 4 times
BApproximately 1.5 times
CApproximately 2 times
DApproximately 8 times

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
A0.2 VDC
B0.5 VDC
C1.38 VDC
D0.02 VDC

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
CAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A60 watts
B6 watts
C24 watts
D2.4 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

SelectAnswer
A0.33 microfarads
B33.3 microfarads
C0.30 microfarads
D300 microfarads

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

SelectAnswer
AIts active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
BIts saturation and cutoff regions
CIts peak and valley current points
DIts enhancement and depletion modes

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

SelectAnswer
AIt requires ambient or back lighting
BIt offers a wide dynamic range
CIt has a wide viewing angle
DAll of these choices are correct

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

SelectAnswer
AFewer circuit components are required
BAll of these choices are correct
CFaster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
DHigh frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

SelectAnswer
AAn analog mixer
BA digital mixer
CAn array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
DA clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

SelectAnswer
AProduct detector
BRF oscillator
CIF filter
DBalanced modulator

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
APhase modulation
BSingle sideband
CDouble sideband
DFrequency modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

SelectAnswer
AIt improves impedance matching of the antenna
BIt minimizes power consumption in the receiver
CIt results in the best signal to noise ratio
DIt is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

SelectAnswer
AFSK441 and Hellschreiber
BClover
CJT9 and JT65
DRTTY

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

SelectAnswer
A75 ohms
B50 ohms
C100 ohms
D300 ohms

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

SelectAnswer
AIt steadily increases
BIt steadily decreases
CIt is unaffected by the location of the feed point
DIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AFront to side ratio decreases
BFront to back ratio decreases
CBeamwidth increases
DGain increases

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA helical antenna for space reception
BA broad-band mobile antenna
CA very long and low directional receiving antenna
DA vertical antenna

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
BIt should limited to 10 feet in height
CIt should not be installed higher than you can reach
DIt should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

SelectAnswer
AAWG number 12
BAWG number 8
CAWG number 20
DAWG number 16