US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end
B	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency end

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The Control Operator
B	The IEEE
C	The FCC
D	The ITU

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a different frequency
B	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Change frequency
C	Send slower
D	Repeat everything twice

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A quarter-wave vertical antenna

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	USB
C	CW
D	DSB

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
B	At any point in the solar cycle
C	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D	At the summer solstice

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A pronounced peak
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
B	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.647 MHz

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The antenna system

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
B	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	6 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 ohms
B	0.30 ohms
C	0.33 ohms
D	300 ohms

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
B	A special connector for microwave interfacing
C	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
D	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	3
C	8
D	16

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By differential spurious phasing
B	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
C	By using direct signal phasing
D	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Simpler receiving equipment can be used

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the varicode character set
D	By using a parity bit with each character

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
D	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Shorten the radials
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/3 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
D	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 16

Figure G7-1