US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	1875 kHz
B	3750 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	4005 kHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	A beacon station may not use automatic control
D	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
B	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
C	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
D	Increase power to overcome interference

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
C	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
D	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A directional antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
D	An isotropic antenna

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	85 Hz

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved chances of UHF ducting

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E skip
B	Scatter
C	Faraday rotation
D	Short-path skip

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
C	To increase the "Q" of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A resistor in series
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its saturation and cutoff regions
B	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
C	Its peak and valley current points
D	Its enhancement and depletion modes

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively low power consumption
B	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high power output
D	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	The checksum overflows
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	50:1
C	5:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should limited to 10 feet in height
B	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
C	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of engine over torque
B	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
C	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion