US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	18155 kHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	During a declared communications emergency
B	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
C	To control a space station
D	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General only
B	Technician only
C	General and Technician
D	Extra, General and Technician

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
B	Countries in ITU Region 2
C	Countries in ITU Region 1
D	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Very high fidelity voice modulation

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress always have priority
B	Nets always have priority
C	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising Sun
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from its short-path heading

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved chances of UHF ducting

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
C	They are bent back to the Earth
D	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
D	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
D	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ohmmeter
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C13

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

Select	Answer
A	A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
B	Bandpass tuning
C	A noise limiter
D	Balanced mixing

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
C	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
D	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination

19. - G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

Select	Answer
A	No current can flow through the circuit
B	The source can deliver maximum power to the load
C	The electrical load is shorted
D	The source delivers minimum power to the load

20. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	34 volts
C	24 volts
D	8.5 volts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	0.33 ohms
D	33.3 ohms

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will stay the same
B	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
C	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
D	It will become time dependent

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	NAND Gate
B	Microprocessor
C	Frequency Counter
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Quartz crystals

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Mixer
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	BFO
C	Mixer
D	VFO

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	The checksum overflows
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A broad-band mobile antenna
B	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
C	A helical antenna for space reception
D	A vertical antenna

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the two wires carrying voltage
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the neutral wire