US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	A beacon station may not use automatic control
B	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
C	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	365 days
D	30 days

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English only
B	English, Spanish, French, or German
C	Any language recognized by the United Nations
D	The language being used for the contact

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A general call for any station
B	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
C	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
D	A distress call

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
B	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
C	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	Double hop propagation along the path is more common

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
D	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting tuned circuits
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When high precision is desired

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To remove noise from received signals
B	To increase antenna gain
C	To provide adequate grounding
D	To increase antenna bandwidth

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna system
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	33.3 ohms
C	0.30 ohms
D	0.33 ohms

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	An analog mixer
D	A digital mixer

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Audio fidelity is improved
B	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is busy decoding the packet
B	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C	The entire file has been received correctly
D	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	500 and 750 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	25 and 30 ohms
D	80 and 100 ohms

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	16 feet
C	21 feet
D	11 feet

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B	Directional receiving for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	All of these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

Figure G7-1