US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	28.550 MHz
C	28.350 MHz
D	All of these choices are correct

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	To control a space station
B	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
C	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D	During a declared communications emergency

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English, Spanish, French, or German
B	English only
C	Any language recognized by the United Nations
D	The language being used for the contact

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 to 500 Hz
B	3 to 6 kHz
C	5 to 50 Hz
D	1 to 3 kHz

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
C	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

10. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
C	All of these choices are correct
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A field strength meter
D	A wavemeter

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
C	Connect all equipment grounds together
D	Use a ground loop for best conductivity

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	530 watts
C	1060 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	A resistor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse Biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Beyond cutoff
D	Forward Biased

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class A
C	Class C
D	Class AB

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	Carrier oscillator
C	IF amplifier
D	RF amplifier

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Audio fidelity is improved
B	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Simpler receiving equipment can be used

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
C	It terminates the contact
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower ground reflection losses
C	Shorter Radials
D	Lower radiation resistance

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
B	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
C	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	All of these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire

Figure G7-1