US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
B	Countries in ITU Region 1
C	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
D	Countries in ITU Region 2

6. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows "hands free" operation
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It provides more power output

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 50 Hz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	1 to 3 kHz
D	3 to 6 kHz

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed by card
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	Skywarn
C	ARES
D	Winlink

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	All of these choices are correct.
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ohmmeter
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To remove noise from received signals
B	To provide adequate grounding
C	To increase antenna bandwidth
D	To increase antenna gain

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Conductance

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	The antenna system

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	625 watts
C	2500 watts
D	8.75 watts

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in series
B	A resistor in parallel
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Better suited for RF amplification

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Balanced modulator
C	Detector
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
D	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Footer
D	Directory

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
C	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B	High forward gain
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Acceptable modulation limits

Figure G7-1