US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	4005 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	300 feet
D	200 feet

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Nets always have priority
B	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
C	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress always have priority

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening for novice stations
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	3775 - 3825 kHz
B	3700 - 3750 kHz
C	3500 - 3525 kHz
D	3570 - 3600 kHz

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	HF communications are improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Time of day and season
C	Path distance and location
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The radio is operating at half power
D	The transceiver is operating from an external power source

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
B	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
D	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
C	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D	Connect all equipment grounds together

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Splatter
B	Excessive background pickup
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A length of transmission line
C	A Pi-network
D	A transformer

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	100 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	353.5 watts

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High voltage
C	High discharge current
D	Rapid recharge

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Longer life
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Lower power consumption
D	Faster response time

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Angle convolution
C	Phase modulation
D	Radian inversion

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters make the signal stronger
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	80 and 100 ohms
C	50 and 75 ohms
D	500 and 750 ohms

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	11 feet
C	21 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	About 1.5 times as much
C	About 2/3 as much
D	About twice as much

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A broad-band mobile antenna
C	A helical antenna for space reception
D	A very long and low directional receiving antenna

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	All of these choices are correct

Figure G7-1