US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	14250 kHz

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
B	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
C	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Automatically controlled digital station
B	Robotically controlled station
C	Fail-safe digital station
D	Locally controlled station

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
D	Change to a different frequency

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
B	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
C	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	11 years
B	40 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
C	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
D	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better precision for most uses
B	Better for RF measurements
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Faster response

16. - G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Siemens
C	Ohm
D	Ampere

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	175 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	1500 ohms

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	High voltage
C	Rapid recharge
D	Long life

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Window comparator
B	Phase detector
C	Charge-coupled device
D	Microcontroller

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	Balanced modulator
C	IF filter
D	Product detector

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	The RF clipping level
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
B	The version of the PSK protocol
C	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
D	The year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:1
B	1:5
C	5:1
D	2:1

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

32. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Larger diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Polarization diversity
D	Wide bandwidth

34. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It heats body tissue
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
C	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight