US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	160 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When messages are encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The speed at which the CQ was sent
B	A slow speed until contact is established
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
B	At any point in the solar cycle
C	Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
D	At the summer solstice

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun has just set
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun is overhead
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To facilitate computer interface
C	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
B	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photon decomposition
B	Photosynthesis
C	Photon emission
D	Photovoltaic conversion

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1060 watts
C	1500 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	0.30 microfarads

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
C	When a constant current charger is used
D	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
B	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
C	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
D	A computer on a single integrated circuit

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	8
D	16

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
B	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
C	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
D	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Discriminator
C	BFO
D	VFO

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and Low
B	Mark and Space
C	On and Off
D	Dot and Dash

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 1
B	1 to 1
C	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	131 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	84 feet

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About 2/3 as much
B	About twice as much
C	About the same
D	About 1.5 times as much

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	High forward gain
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should limited to 10 feet in height
D	It should not be installed higher than you can reach

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower