US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.350 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
C	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
D	Never

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is a licensed amateur
C	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 10 kHz
B	Approximately 3 kHz
C	Between 150 and 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Sending without error
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	Date and time of contact
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.000 - 14.050 MHz

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	A well-defined echo might be heard
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	They have very large swings in signal strength
B	They have high intelligibility
C	They have a wavering sound
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To reduce distortion due to excessive drive

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
D	It improves the resolution of the readings

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	The antenna system
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To reduce power supply ripple

20. - G5B01

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 12 dB

21. - G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	A resistor in parallel
C	A resistor in series
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

23. - G6B10

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

Select	Answer
A	Power supply and amplifier
B	Microphone and transceiver
C	Computer and transceiver
D	Amplifier and antenna

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class AB
C	Class A
D	Class B

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
B	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
C	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
D	HF oscillator, mixer, detector

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Quadrature noise
C	Mixer interference
D	Image response

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It requests the packet be retransmitted
B	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
C	It terminates the contact
D	It requests a change in transmitting protocol

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	263 feet
C	131 feet
D	42 feet

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About 1.5 times as much
B	About 2/3 as much
C	About twice as much
D	About the same

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Polarization diversity
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Wide bandwidth

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	Its duty cycle
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	100 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	60 amperes