US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	During a declared communications emergency
B	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
C	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D	To control a space station

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	12 years
B	18 years
C	21 years
D	There is no age limit

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
B	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
C	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
D	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
C	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
D	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Sending without error
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
D	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	USB
C	LSB
D	DSB

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct.
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	The E-region is not present
D	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced dip

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An antenna noise bridge
C	A Q meter
D	A multimeter

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	A ground loop
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Overheating of ground straps

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of each branch current
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

21. - G5C02

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

Select	Answer
A	The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	At right angles to each other
B	In line
C	Parallel to each other
D	Interleaved

23. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of the these choices are correct
B	A digital processor chip
C	An analog to digital converter
D	A digital to analog converter

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:1
B	2:1
C	1:5
D	5:1

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It stays the same
B	It decreases
C	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
D	It increases

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About twice as much
B	About 1.5 times as much
C	About the same
D	About 2/3 as much

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
C	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

Figure G7-1