US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

2. - G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
B	When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C	When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
D	When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
D	A directional antenna

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

11. - G3A16

What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

Select	Answer
A	Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
B	Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
C	Improved HF long path propagation
D	Reduced long delayed echoes

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Time of day and season
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	VOX operation
D	Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A field strength meter
C	A wavemeter
D	A sidetone monitor

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all equipment grounds together
B	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
C	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
D	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
D	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Farad

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.5 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	10.9 percent

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	High discharge current
C	Rapid recharge
D	Long life

23. - G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

Select	Answer
A	It requires ambient or back lighting
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It offers a wide dynamic range
D	It has a wide viewing angle

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	Filter
C	Carrier oscillator
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D	The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	131 feet
B	84 feet
C	42 feet
D	263 feet

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
B	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
B	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

Figure G7-1