US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The Control Operator
B	The ITU
C	The IEEE
D	The FCC

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
B	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
C	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
D	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Low power transmit operation
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
D	14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun has just set
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
D	Where the Sun is rising

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Radio wave propagation
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	Standing wave ratio

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
B	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
C	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
D	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
D	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
D	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	100 watts
D	353.5 watts

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henrys
B	3.3 millihenrys
C	0.30 henrys
D	30 millihenrys

22. - G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Control grid
C	Screen Grid
D	Heater

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Analog
C	Programmable Logic
D	MMIC

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	Carrier oscillator
C	IF amplifier
D	RF amplifier

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency transformation

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The entire file has been received correctly
B	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
C	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D	The receiver is busy decoding the packet

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:1
C	0:0
D	50:50

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing

34. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its frequency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	The resistance of solder is too high
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection