US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	20 meters

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

5. - G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator must have at least a General Class license
B	The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
C	Information must be exchanged in English
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high fidelity voice modulation
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
B	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
C	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

8. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Closing station now
D	Listening for novice stations

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
C	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
D	14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	28 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
C	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
D	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
D	The E-region is not present

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A signal generator

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Clearly audible speech
C	Distorted speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Ohm
C	Farad
D	Ampere

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The RMS value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak value

21. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	An inductor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	DE-9
B	Type N
C	PL-259
D	Type SMA

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	RF oscillator
B	IF filter
C	Product detector
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Simpler receiving equipment can be used
B	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
D	Audio fidelity is improved

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	VFO
B	Discriminator
C	BFO
D	Mixer

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	8
C	The number varies
D	5

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
B	6:1
C	3:1
D	1.5:1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
B	Danger of engine over torque
C	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
D	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion