US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 2
C	Region 3
D	All three regions

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	Any language recognized by the United Nations
B	The language being used for the contact
C	English only
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 to 50 Hz
B	150 to 500 Hz
C	1 to 3 kHz
D	3 to 6 kHz

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
C	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The E layer
C	The D layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions

15. - G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
B	Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
C	Determining the gain of a directional antenna
D	Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna

16. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photosynthesis
C	Photon emission
D	Photon decomposition

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A length of transmission line
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 watts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 milliwatts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	33.3 ohms
C	0.33 ohms
D	0.30 ohms

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To increase efficiency

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency Counter
B	Microprocessor
C	NAND Gate
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	All of these choices are correct

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	An amplifier and a divider

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By using direct signal phasing
B	By differential spurious phasing
C	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
D	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	1800 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Footer
B	Header
C	Preamble
D	Directory

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 1000 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 100 feet
D	Ohms per 1000 feet

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Shorten the radials
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

32. - G9C17

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/3 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	2/3 wavelength

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
B	A helical antenna for space reception
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A vertical antenna

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All of these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

35. - G0B02

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 20