US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	17 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	300 feet
C	100 feet
D	200 feet

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

4. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	365 days
C	180 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response
D	Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
B	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
C	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
D	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
B	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Path distance and location
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
B	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
B	To change frequency rapidly
C	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
D	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
C	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
D	All of these choices are correct

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To maximize the transfer of power

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the average of each branch current

21. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henrys
B	3.3 millihenrys
C	3.3 henrys
D	30 millihenrys

22. - G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Its enhancement and depletion modes
B	Its saturation and cutoff regions
C	Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
D	Its peak and valley current points

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Lower power consumption
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Longer life
D	Faster response time

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
B	By differential spurious phasing
C	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
D	By using direct signal phasing

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency shift keying
B	Phase modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Synthesizing
C	Phase inverting
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B	JT9 and JT65
C	Clover
D	RTTY

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:50
B	2:1
C	0:0
D	1:1

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	Only the ground wire
C	All wires
D	Only the two wires carrying voltage

Figure G7-1