US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	20 meters
C	160 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The FCC
D	The Control Operator

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
D	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
D	The third party is a licensed amateur

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Between 150 and 500 Hz
B	Approximately 10 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Approximately 3 kHz

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Key clicks
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
B	An isotropic antenna
C	A directional antenna
D	An omnidirectional antenna

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
D	14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	60 meters and 40 meters
C	80 meters and 160 meters
D	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	They have high intelligibility
B	They have a wavering sound
C	All of these choices are correct
D	They have very large swings in signal strength

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An ammeter
C	A signal generator
D	An oscilloscope

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass inductor
D	Forward-biased diode

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Splatter
C	Distorted speech
D	Excessive background pickup

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
B	Insert a circulator between the two circuits
C	Increase the power output of the first circuit
D	Reduce the power output of the first circuit

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	2500 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	625 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	47 microfarads
B	4.7 microfarads
C	0.47 microfarads
D	47,000 microfarads

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The capacitor could overheat and explode

23. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	Digital

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	The binary number system is most accurate

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
B	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
D	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
B	The version of the PSK protocol
C	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
D	The year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	32 feet
B	16 feet
C	24 feet
D	8 feet

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
C	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
D	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit