US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	160 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Identifying net frequencies
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is a licensed amateur
B	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party is not a U.S. citizen

6. - G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets always have priority
C	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
D	QSOs in progress always have priority

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The speed at which the CQ was sent
B	A slow speed until contact is established
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink
B	RTTY
C	Skywarn
D	ARES

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are improved
B	HF communications are disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 layer
B	The D layer
C	The F1 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	SWR Bridge
B	Balanced modulator
C	Q Multiplier
D	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
B	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
C	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
B	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
D	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Siemens
C	Farad
D	Ampere

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	5000 watts
C	2500 watts
D	8.75 watts

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Capacitive coupling

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	When a constant current charger is used
B	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
C	Never
D	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
B	A special connector for microwave interfacing
C	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
D	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Fewer circuit components are required

25. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	8
C	3
D	16

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	416.7 Hz
D	5 kHz

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
B	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
C	The version of the PSK protocol
D	The year in which PSK31 was invented

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 1
B	5 to 1
C	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B	It has poor directivity
C	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	Acceptable modulation limits
C	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D	RF exposure limits of the human body