US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3750 kHz
B	3900 kHz
C	1875 kHz
D	4005 kHz

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
B	To control a space station
C	During a declared communications emergency
D	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

4. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	12 years
C	21 years
D	18 years

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
B	QSOs in progress always have priority
C	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Nets always have priority

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
B	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
C	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"
D	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Identification of out of band operation
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
C	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the MUF
B	Select a frequency just above the LUF
C	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Input impedance is much lower

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	60 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	1000 millihenrys
D	0.07 millihenrys

22. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	6 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G6B15

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?

Select	Answer
A	Higher current carrying capacity
B	Reduced chance of incorrect mating
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Prevention of use by unauthorized persons

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Detector
C	Balanced modulator
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency shift keying
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Pre-emphasis network
C	Mixer
D	Multiplier

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It terminates the contact
B	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	4:1

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground reflection losses
B	Shorter Radials
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower feed point impedance

32. - G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
D	All of these choices are correct

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	The resistance of solder is too high

Figure G7-1