US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 2
C	All three regions
D	Region 3

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The Control Operator
D	The FCC

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is a licensed amateur
B	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
C	The third party is not a U.S. citizen
D	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets always have priority
C	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
D	QSOs in progress always have priority

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Stop sending
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Send more slowly

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

10. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
B	Select a frequency just below the MUF
C	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Faraday rotation
C	Sporadic-E skip
D	Short-path skip

14. - G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low input SWR
B	Shorting the input signal to ground
C	Excessive drive power
D	Insufficient drive power

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A wavemeter
D	A field strength meter

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Connect all ground conductors to a single point

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 to 7.181 MHz
C	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.184 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1500 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1060 watts

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3583 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	1733 picofarads

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Microprocessor
B	Frequency Counter
C	NAND Gate
D	Linear voltage regulator

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Balanced modulator
C	Product detector
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Synthesizing
C	Phase inverting
D	Cancellation

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using the varicode character set

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:4
C	4:1
D	1:2

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	42 feet
C	263 feet
D	131 feet

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
B	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
C	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
D	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

35. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
B	Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
C	Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
D	All of these choices are correct