US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	12 meters
D	17 meters

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
B	A beacon station may not use automatic control
C	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
C	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
D	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
D	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	ARES
B	Skywarn
C	Winlink
D	RTTY

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It decreases battery consumption in the meter

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Distorted speech

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The battery charging system
B	The fuel delivery system
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The vehicle control computer

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	2500 watts
D	5000 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	1500 ohms
B	175 ohms
C	90 ohms
D	150 ohms

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	Interleaved
B	At right angles to each other
C	In line
D	Parallel to each other

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Octal
B	PL-259
C	RJ-11
D	DB-25

24. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Charge-coupled device
B	Microcontroller
C	Window comparator
D	Phase detector

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Mixer
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency conversion

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It results in the best signal to noise ratio

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
B	1.5:1
C	6:1
D	3:1

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The number of elements on the boom
B	The spacing of each element along the boom
C	The physical length of the boom
D	All of these choices are correct

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To permit multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out of band operation

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with an S meter
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty

Figure G7-1