US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end
B	The lower frequency end
C	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
B	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
B	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
B	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high fidelity voice modulation
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Change to a different frequency
D	Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have already confirmed by card
C	I acknowledge receipt
D	We have worked before

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
B	An omnidirectional antenna
C	A directional antenna
D	An isotropic antenna

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved chances of UHF ducting

12. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are bent back to the Earth

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun has just set
B	Where the Sun is overhead
C	Where the Sun is rising
D	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The radio is operating at half power
B	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for RF measurements
B	Faster response
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Better precision for most uses

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of each branch current
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 ohms
B	0.30 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	0.33 ohms

22. - G6A04

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

Select	Answer
A	When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
B	Never
C	When a constant current charger is used
D	As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Reverse Biased
C	Forward Biased
D	Beyond cutoff

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class AB
C	Class C
D	Class B

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Filter
C	RF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency convolution

28. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Cancellation
C	Phase inverting
D	Heterodyning

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Volumetric
C	Binary
D	Varicode

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
B	It decreases
C	It increases
D	It stays the same

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area