US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.250 MHz
B	40.200 MHz
C	40.500 MHz
D	7.500 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Identifying net frequencies
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

3. - G1C06

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
B	Countries in ITU Region 1
C	Countries in ITU Region 2
D	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power to overcome interference
B	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
C	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
D	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Stop sending
C	Send more slowly
D	Zero beat my signal

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	Along the gray line
D	180 degrees from its short-path heading

10. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Send QRL in Morse code

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

12. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Double hop propagation along the path is more common
D	No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
D	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
C	SWR Bridge
D	Q Multiplier

15. - G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
B	Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
C	Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
D	Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Bypass inductor
D	Reverse-biased diode

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Transmitter power output

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion
B	Photon emission
C	Photon decomposition
D	Photosynthesis

19. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	100 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Mutual inductance
D	Displacement current coupling

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
B	To reduce stray capacitance
C	To increase the beta of the transistor
D	To improve the power dissipation capability

23. - G6B11

What is a microprocessor?

Select	Answer
A	A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
B	A computer on a single integrated circuit
C	A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
D	A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	An analog to digital converter
B	A digital processor chip
C	All of the these choices are correct
D	A digital to analog converter

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Viterbi

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	25 and 30 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	80 and 100 ohms
D	500 and 750 ohms

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
B	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
C	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
D	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB

33. - G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C	Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
D	High forward gain

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D	Insure that the generator is not grounded

Figure G7-1