US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.200 MHz
B	7.250 MHz
C	7.500 MHz
D	40.500 MHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
B	Identifying net frequencies
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	3 kHz

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Countries in ITU Region 2
B	Countries in ITU Region 1
C	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
D	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

7. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress always have priority
B	Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
D	Nets always have priority

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

9. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

10. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct.
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	SWR Bridge
B	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
C	Q Multiplier
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ohmmeter
C	An ammeter
D	An oscilloscope

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	A ground loop
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	The antenna system
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	0.30 ohms
C	0.33 ohms
D	33.3 ohms

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	DB-25
B	RJ-11
C	PL-259
D	Octal

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	All of these choices are correct

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By differential spurious phasing
B	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
C	By using direct signal phasing
D	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

29. - G8C01

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	FSK441 and Hellschreiber
C	Clover
D	JT9 and JT65

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	6:1
B	1.5:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	3:1

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
B	It increases
C	It stays the same
D	It decreases

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Polarization diversity
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	The resistance of solder is too high

Figure G7-1