US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1855 kHz
B	2560 kHz
C	3650 kHz
D	3560 kHz

2. - G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The Control Operator
D	The FCC

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

6. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only on authorized HF frequencies
B	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C	At any time during an actual emergency
D	Only when transmitting in RACES

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The speed at which the CQ was sent
B	A slow speed until contact is established
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
C	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long Path propagation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Overmodulation

11. - G3A09

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Microwave communications become unstable
B	Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
C	Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
D	High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are bent back to the Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

14. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To facilitate computer interface

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It decreases battery consumption in the meter

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	The antenna system
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	"Picket Fencing" signal variation

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	6 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 ohms
B	0.30 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	33.3 ohms

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To decrease plate resistance

23. - G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Select	Answer
A	Read Only Memory
B	Resistor Operated Memory
C	Resistant to Overload Memory
D	Random Operational Memory

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	Quartz crystals
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	IF filter
C	Balanced modulator
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The bandwidth of the modulated signal

28. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	16 kHz

29. - G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
B	The entire file has been received correctly
C	The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
D	The receiver is busy decoding the packet

30. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

32. - G9C16

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB higher
B	3 dB lower
C	About the same
D	2.54 dB higher

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

34. - G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

35. - G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B	Insure that the generator is not grounded
C	Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D	All of these choices are correct