US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	3900 kHz
B	4005 kHz
C	3750 kHz
D	1875 kHz

2. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are not permitted
C	Only "Q" signals are permitted
D	Only "10 codes" are permitted

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	200 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
B	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
C	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
D	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination

5. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Very high fidelity voice modulation
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Between 150 and 500 Hz
B	Approximately 10 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Approximately 3 kHz

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	A slow speed until contact is established
D	The speed at which the CQ was sent

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Identification of different call signs
C	Identification of out of band operation
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
D	14.150 - 14.225 MHz

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent back to the Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The F1 layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The E layer

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It improves the resolution of the readings

16. - G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	Distorted speech
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Splatter

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
B	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

22. - G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

23. - G6B12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	DE-9
C	Type SMA
D	Type N

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	All of these choices are correct

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To limit the modulation index

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
B	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
C	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
D	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Mixer
C	VFO
D	BFO

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Viterbi
C	Binary
D	Varicode

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	80 and 100 ohms
B	500 and 750 ohms
C	50 and 75 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
B	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
C	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
D	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
B	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	All of these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Danger of engine over torque
B	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
C	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning