US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14305 kHz
B	14405 kHz
C	14005 kHz
D	14105 kHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
C	Never
D	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis

3. - G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
B	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
D	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	A slow speed until contact is established
C	The speed at which the CQ was sent
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	Along the gray line
D	180 degrees from its short-path heading

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
B	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
C	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
D	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use

13. - G3C09

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path skip
B	Scatter
C	Sporadic-E skip
D	Faraday rotation

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
B	The radio is operating at half power
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When adjusting tuned circuits
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When high precision is desired

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	60 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.47 microfarads
B	47 microfarads
C	47,000 microfarads
D	4.7 microfarads

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High stability
C	Tight tolerance
D	High capacitance for given volume

23. - G6B15

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?

Select	Answer
A	Reduced chance of incorrect mating
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
D	Higher current carrying capacity

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency shift keying
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

29. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Binary
C	Viterbi
D	Volumetric

30. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	50:1
B	1:5
C	2:1
D	5:1

31. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	All of the elements must be the same length
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	The director is normally the longest element
D	The reflector is normally the longest element

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

Figure G7-1