US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

2. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
C	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power to overcome interference
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
D	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B	The speed at which the CQ was sent
C	A slow speed until contact is established
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

9. - G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
B	The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
D	The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	ARES
B	RTTY
C	Skywarn
D	Winlink

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

13. - G3C10

Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The communication is during a sunspot maximum
B	The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
C	The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
D	The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To increase antenna bandwidth
C	To remove noise from received signals
D	To provide adequate grounding

17. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 to 7.184 MHz
B	7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 to 7.181 MHz

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A transformer
D	A length of transmission line

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	625 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	5000 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenrys
B	1000 millihenrys
C	0.07 millihenrys
D	14.3 millihenrys

22. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

23. - G6B15

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?

Select	Answer
A	Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Reduced chance of incorrect mating
D	Higher current carrying capacity

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C10

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

Select	Answer
A	By differential spurious phasing
B	By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
C	By using direct signal phasing
D	By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Image response
C	Mixer interference
D	Quadrature noise

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	50:50
C	1:1
D	0:0

31. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	84 feet
C	131 feet
D	263 feet

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	All of the elements must be the same length
B	The reflector is normally the shortest element
C	The reflector is normally the longest element
D	The director is normally the longest element

33. - G9D09

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B	It should limited to 10 feet in height
C	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
D	It should not be installed in a wet area

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit