US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	1875 kHz
B	4005 kHz
C	3750 kHz
D	3900 kHz

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Identifying net frequencies

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E06

Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

Select	Answer
A	Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
B	The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C	The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
D	The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B	A slow speed until contact is established
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The speed at which the CQ was sent

9. - G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A quarter-wave vertical antenna
C	An omnidirectional antenna
D	A directional antenna

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
B	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
C	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
D	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	All of these choices are correct.
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
C	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
D	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E-region is not present
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
D	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	Q Multiplier
C	Balanced modulator
D	SWR Bridge

15. - G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When adjusting tuned circuits
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

17. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Impedance
C	Received signal strength
D	Conductance

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	1060 watts
C	1500 watts
D	530 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	33.3 microfarads

22. - G6A18

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

24. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The binary number system is most accurate
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	RF oscillator
C	Balanced modulator
D	IF filter

27. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency shift keying
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Quadrature noise
C	Image response
D	Intermediate interference

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The year in which PSK31 was invented
B	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
C	The version of the PSK protocol
D	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31

30. - G9A15

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
C	The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
D	The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Shorten the radials
D	Lengthen the radials

32. - G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
B	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
D	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing

34. - G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
C	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the two wires carrying voltage
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	All wires

Figure G7-1