US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	28.550 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
D	Only messages for other licensed amateurs

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only when transmitting in RACES
B	At any time during an actual emergency
C	At any time when transmitting in an organized net
D	Only on authorized HF frequencies

8. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	BK
C	SK
D	KN

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	A well-defined echo might be heard
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	SWR Bridge
C	Q Multiplier
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Clearly audible speech
C	Distorted speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The vehicle control computer
D	The battery charging system

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	100 watts

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Mutual inductance
D	Capacitive coupling

22. - G6A15

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Tight tolerance
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	High capacitance for a given volume

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response time
B	Longer life
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Lower power consumption

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively high power output
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

28. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Pre-emphasis network
C	Multiplier
D	Reactance modulator

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The year in which PSK31 was invented
B	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
C	The version of the PSK protocol
D	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31

30. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1000 feet
D	Ohms per 1000 feet

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

32. - G9C11

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the main lobe gain
B	To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C	To increase the front-to-back ratio
D	To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms

33. - G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out of band operation
D	To permit multiband operation

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with an S meter
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

Figure G7-1