US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
B	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Send slower
D	Increase your power

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from its short-path heading
B	Toward the rising Sun
C	Along the gray line
D	Toward the north

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
B	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
C	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"
D	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communications are disturbed

12. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
B	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
C	The E-region is not present
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

14. - G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	All of these choices are correct
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A multimeter
C	A Q meter
D	An antenna noise bridge

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	Overheating of ground straps

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
B	To the battery using resistor wire
C	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
D	To the battery using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	2500 watts
C	625 watts
D	5000 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	90 ohms
B	1500 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	175 ohms

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
B	It will stay the same
C	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
D	It will become time dependent

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	PL-259
C	Type N
D	RCA Phono

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class B
C	Class C
D	Class AB

26. - G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	IF amplifier
C	Mixer
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission
B	Varicode Error Correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
D	Upper case letters make the signal stronger

30. - G9A12

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	2.5:1
C	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
D	1.25:1

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Shorten the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

32. - G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
B	The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element
C	There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
D	The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer

33. - G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

Select	Answer
A	As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B	Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
C	As close to one wavelength as possible
D	Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength

34. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	The resistance of solder is too high

Figure G7-1