US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	28.020 MHz
C	All of these choices are correct
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	A beacon station may not use automatic control
B	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Universal Licensing System
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Federal Communications Commission

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English only
B	English, Spanish, French, or German
C	The language being used for the contact
D	Any language recognized by the United Nations

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B10

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

Select	Answer
A	When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
B	When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C	When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
D	Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

8. - G2C04

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

Select	Answer
A	"Will you keep the frequency clear?"
B	"Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"
C	"Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
D	"Are you listening only for a specific station?"

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

10. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	CW
C	LSB
D	DSB

11. - G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
C	The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
D	Because it is the highest ionospheric region

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced peak

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for RF measurements
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Better precision for most uses

16. - G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

17. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.344 to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 to 14.350 MHz
D	14.347 to 14.647 MHz

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using resistor wire
B	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the battery using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Insert an LC network between the two circuits
B	Reduce the power output of the first circuit
C	Increase the power output of the first circuit
D	Insert a circulator between the two circuits

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	625 watts
C	5000 watts
D	2500 watts

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	1733 picofarads
C	3583 picofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

22. - G6A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	Lower inductance
B	Higher breakdown voltage
C	Lower capacitance
D	Longer switching times

23. - G6B07

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Lower power consumption
C	Longer life
D	Faster response time

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
B	Relatively high power output
C	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
B	Audio fidelity is improved
C	Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
D	Simpler receiving equipment can be used

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	500 Hz
B	2300 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	31.5 Hz

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	7
C	The number varies
D	5

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	50 ohms

31. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	All of the elements must be the same length
B	The director is normally the longest element
C	The reflector is normally the longest element
D	The reflector is normally the shortest element

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A broad-band mobile antenna
C	A helical antenna for space reception
D	A very long and low directional receiving antenna

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wear a radiation badge
B	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	100 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	60 amperes