US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency end
B	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency end
D	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
D	Monitor the frequency before transmitting

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
D	On any General or Technician Class band segment

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
B	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
C	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

6. - G2A03

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 kHz
B	Between 150 and 500 Hz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	Approximately 10 kHz

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low power transmit operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

10. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

11. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength
B	Another name for the American sunspot number
C	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
D	A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C11

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
B	A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
B	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
C	To change frequency rapidly
D	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

15. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Bypass inductor
D	Reverse-biased diode

17. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C	To the battery using resistor wire
D	To the battery using heavy gauge wire

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To maximize the transfer of power
D	To reduce power supply ripple

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	100 watts
D	353.5 watts

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1733 picofarads
B	576.9 nanofarads
C	3583 picofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Comparatively low cost

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency Counter
B	NAND Gate
C	Linear voltage regulator
D	Microprocessor

24. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Quartz crystals
B	Diodes
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Transformers and transducers

25. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced modulator
B	Discriminator
C	IF amplifier
D	Detector

27. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Excessive bandwidth

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	300 ohms

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	As high as possible above the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	At the center of the antenna
D	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground

32. - G9C04

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is normally the shortest element
B	The director is normally the longest element
C	All of the elements must be the same length
D	The reflector is normally the longest element

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It has poor directivity

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	The resistance of solder is too high