US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	28.550 MHz
C	28.350 MHz
D	28.020 MHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	50 feet
C	200 feet
D	300 feet

3. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Under no circumstances
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
D	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency

6. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Double sideband

7. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of out of band operation
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of different call signs

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Long pauses in message transmission

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	28 days
D	20 to 40 hours

12. - G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select	Answer
A	Select a frequency just below the MUF
B	Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
C	Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
D	Select a frequency just above the LUF

13. - G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
B	Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
C	Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D	All of these choices are correct

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
B	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
C	To change frequency rapidly
D	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for RF measurements
B	Better precision for most uses
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Faster response

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To increase antenna gain
B	To provide adequate grounding
C	To remove noise from received signals
D	To increase antenna bandwidth

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background pickup
B	Distorted speech
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Splatter

18. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

19. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Farad
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

20. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 watts

21. - G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	22 nF
B	0.22 nF
C	220 nF
D	2.2 nF

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.1 volt

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A special connector for microwave interfacing
B	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
C	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
D	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals

24. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Detector
B	Balanced modulator
C	IF amplifier
D	Discriminator

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

28. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate

29. - G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

Select	Answer
A	The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
B	The year in which PSK31 was invented
C	The approximate transmitted symbol rate
D	The version of the PSK protocol

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

31. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

32. - G9C18

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

Select	Answer
A	The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized
B	There is no change in polarization
C	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
D	The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal

33. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should limited to 10 feet in height
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should not be installed higher than you can reach
D	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis