US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	14105 kHz
B	14305 kHz
C	14005 kHz
D	14405 kHz

2. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
C	There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
D	A beacon station may not use automatic control

3. - G1C05

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	The language being used for the contact
B	English only
C	Any language recognized by the United Nations
D	English, Spanish, French, or German

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

Select	Answer
A	Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
B	Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
C	Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D	Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	A slow speed until contact is established
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The speed at which the CQ was sent

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Low power transmit operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Remote piloted model control

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Long Path propagation

11. - G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	12,000 miles

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To change frequency rapidly
B	To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
C	To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
D	To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency

15. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance is much lower
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

16. - G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Connect all ground conductors to a single point
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
B	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
D	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
B	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	60 watts
C	6 watts
D	2.4 watts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	26.7 volts
B	2370 volts
C	5.9 volts
D	540 volts

22. - G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
D	The capacitor could overheat and explode

23. - G6B17

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

Select	Answer
A	A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
B	A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
C	A special connector for microwave interfacing
D	A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
B	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
C	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal

28. - G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Image response
D	Quadrature noise

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The checksum overflows
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A14

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	24 feet
C	16 feet
D	32 feet

32. - G9C19

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
B	dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
C	dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D	dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be fed with open wire line

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

35. - G0B15

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

Figure G7-1