US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

Select	Answer
A	Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
B	Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
C	Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
D	Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
D	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
C	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Very high fidelity voice modulation

7. - G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	Approximately 10 kHz
C	Approximately 3 kHz
D	Between 150 and 500 Hz

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Stop sending
D	I am troubled by static

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 - 14.100 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.275 - 14.350 MHz

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	20 to 40 hours

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
C	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
D	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

14. - G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	Fewer digital components are required

17. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 8 times

18. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The vehicle control computer
C	The battery charging system
D	The fuel delivery system

19. - G5A10

What unit is used to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Watt
B	Ampere
C	Volt
D	Ohm

20. - G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	100 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	1.4 watts

21. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	90 ohms
C	175 ohms
D	1500 ohms

22. - G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.3 volts
D	0.1 volt

23. - G6B01

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

Select	Answer
A	NAND Gate
B	Microprocessor
C	Linear voltage regulator
D	Frequency Counter

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	The binary number system is most accurate
B	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	Balanced modulator
C	IF filter
D	RF oscillator

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	1800 Hz
C	2300 Hz
D	500 Hz

29. - G8C03

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Preamble
C	Header
D	Footer

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	80 and 100 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	32 feet
B	8 feet
C	24 feet
D	16 feet

32. - G9C09

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Nearly Vertical Inductance System

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Wear a radiation badge
D	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

35. - G0B14

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D	Acceptable modulation limits

Figure G7-1