US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
B	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
D	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
C	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
D	Monitor the frequency before transmitting

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

4. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters
C	On any General or Technician Class band segment
D	Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail

5. - G1E12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When messages are not encrypted

6. - G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The caller is listening for a station in Germany
B	A general call for any station
C	The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D	A distress call

7. - G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

Select	Answer
A	Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
B	Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
C	As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
D	Increase power to overcome interference

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	Key clicks

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
B	Identification of out of band operation
C	Identification of different call signs
D	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

10. - G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	Winlink
C	ARES
D	Skywarn

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	14 days

12. - G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
B	They are bent back to the Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

13. - G3C12

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	The E layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The D layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A pronounced dip
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	A pronounced peak

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A field strength meter
D	A wavemeter

16. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B	Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
C	Adding series capacitors to the conductors
D	Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

17. - G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Splatter
C	Excessive background pickup
D	Distorted speech

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	5000 watts
C	625 watts
D	8.75 watts

21. - G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

22. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	Long life
C	High voltage
D	Rapid recharge

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

26. - G7C08

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Mixer
C	Product detector
D	Phase inverter

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	The RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	VFO
B	Mixer
C	Discriminator
D	BFO

29. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using the varicode character set

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases
B	It stays the same
C	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
D	It increases

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About the same
B	About 2/3 as much
C	About twice as much
D	About 1.5 times as much

33. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Harmonic suppression

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	All of these choices are correct
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

35. - G0B09

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	The resistance of solder is too high
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike