US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

Select	Answer
A	160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
B	60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
C	160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
D	160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

2. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Identifying net frequencies
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
C	Only messages for other licensed amateurs
D	Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid

6. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
C	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
D	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Long Path propagation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters and 160 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

12. - G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
B	Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
C	Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
D	Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal

13. - G3C13

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

14. - G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent connection timeouts
B	The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
C	The transmitter signal is distorted
D	All of these choices are correct

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A multimeter
B	An antenna noise bridge
C	A Q meter
D	A field strength meter

16. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	Clearly audible speech
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Distorted speech

17. - G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

18. - G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

19. - G5A10

What unit is used to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Watt
B	Ampere
C	Volt
D	Ohm

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1500 watts

21. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	0.30 microfarads

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce stray capacitance
B	To increase the beta of the transistor
C	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
D	To improve the power dissipation capability

23. - G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-11
B	Octal
C	PL-259
D	DB-25

24. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 2

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

26. - G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
B	HF oscillator, mixer, detector
C	HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
D	RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier

27. - G8A01

How is an FSK signal generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	BFO
B	VFO
C	Mixer
D	Discriminator

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	The number varies
B	7
C	5
D	8

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

31. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

32. - G9C15

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B	Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
C	Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D	Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength

33. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other

34. - G0A12

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C	Wear a radiation badge
D	Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

35. - G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
B	Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
C	Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
D	Danger of engine over torque

Figure G7-1