US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	40.500 MHz
B	40.200 MHz
C	7.500 MHz
D	7.250 MHz

2. - G1B09

When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

Select	Answer
A	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B	Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
C	When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D	Never

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B	Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C	An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
D	Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license

5. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is a licensed amateur
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party is not a U.S. citizen

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
B	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

8. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Key clicks
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	100 percent copy

9. - G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

Select	Answer
A	Identification of different call signs
B	Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C	Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
D	Identification of out of band operation

10. - G2E11

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Overmodulation
C	Long Path propagation
D	Backscatter propagation

11. - G3A15

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	14 days

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A well-defined echo might be heard
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

15. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for RF measurements
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Better precision for most uses

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
B	To the battery using heavy gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
D	To the battery using resistor wire

19. - G5A01

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
B	The inverse of resistance
C	The electric charge stored by a capacitor
D	The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	200 watts
C	3200 watts
D	400 watts

21. - G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	2370 volts
B	540 volts
C	26.7 volts
D	5.9 volts

22. - G6A17

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
B	The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
D	The resistor could overheat

23. - G6B18

What is a type SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

26. - G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

Select	Answer
A	IF filter
B	Balanced modulator
C	RF oscillator
D	Product detector

27. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Angle convolution
B	Phase modulation
C	Radian inversion
D	Phase convolution

28. - G8B01

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	BFO
C	Mixer
D	VFO

29. - G8C02

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	8
C	The number varies
D	7

30. - G9A13

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1.5:1
B	3:1
C	6:1
D	You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	11 feet

32. - G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna
B	A helical antenna for space reception
C	A broad-band mobile antenna
D	A very long and low directional receiving antenna

34. - G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
B	It should not be installed in a wet area
C	It should limited to 10 feet in height
D	It should not be installed higher than you can reach

35. - G0B06

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis