US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.020 MHz
B	All of these choices are correct
C	28.350 MHz
D	28.550 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
D	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event

3. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

5. - G1E07

With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?

Select	Answer
A	Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
B	Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
C	Countries in ITU Region 1
D	Countries in ITU Region 2

6. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
C	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	Band and/or frequency of the contact
B	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Date and time of contact

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Long pauses in message transmission

11. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

12. - G3B01

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	A well-defined echo might be heard
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Q Multiplier
B	SWR Bridge
C	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An antenna noise bridge
C	A Q meter
D	A multimeter

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
C	Connect all equipment grounds together
D	Use a ground loop for best conductivity

17. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
B	Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

18. - G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B	The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
C	The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

19. - G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

20. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	6 watts
D	24 watts

21. - G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	5.9 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	10000 ohms

22. - G6A08

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?

Select	Answer
A	To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
B	To reduce stray capacitance
C	To improve the power dissipation capability
D	To increase the beta of the transistor

23. - G6B15

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Reduced chance of incorrect mating
C	Higher current carrying capacity
D	Prevention of use by unauthorized persons

24. - G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

25. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

26. - G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
C	Relatively high power output
D	Relatively low power consumption

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

29. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

30. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	4:1
C	2:1
D	1:2

31. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground reflection losses
B	Lower feed point impedance
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Shorter Radials

32. - G9C10

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

33. - G9D10

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A broad-band mobile antenna
B	A helical antenna for space reception
C	A very long and low directional receiving antenna
D	A vertical antenna

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly