US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	28.550 MHz
B	All of these choices are correct
C	28.020 MHz
D	28.350 MHz

2. - G1B04

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
C	The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
D	The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
B	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

4. - G1D06

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B	Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

5. - G1E13

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the 1.25-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 to 500 Hz
B	1 to 3 kHz
C	3 to 6 kHz
D	5 to 50 Hz

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed by card
D	I acknowledge receipt

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from its short-path heading
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	Toward the rising Sun

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	DSB
C	USB
D	LSB

11. - G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	All of these choices are correct.
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C02

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

Select	Answer
A	Where the Sun has just set
B	Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C	Where the Sun is rising
D	Where the Sun is overhead

14. - G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

Select	Answer
A	The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
B	The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
C	The transceiver is operating from an external power source
D	The radio is operating at half power

15. - G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases battery consumption in the meter
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It improves the frequency response

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all equipment grounds together
B	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
C	Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

19. - G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
B	So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C	So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
D	To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	2500 watts
C	625 watts
D	8.75 watts

21. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1733 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	3583 picofarads

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	In line
B	Parallel to each other
C	At right angles to each other
D	Interleaved

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
D	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

25. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

26. - G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Detector
C	Discriminator
D	Balanced modulator

27. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
D	All of these choices are correct

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	80 and 100 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	500 and 750 ohms
D	25 and 30 ohms

31. - G9B03

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases
B	It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
C	It stays the same
D	It increases

32. - G9C20

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
B	dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
C	dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
D	dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
B	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
C	Non-Varying Indicated SWR
D	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

34. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	A receiver with an S meter
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

35. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
C	Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight

Figure G7-1