US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

Select	Answer
A	4005 kHz
B	1875 kHz
C	3900 kHz
D	3750 kHz

2. - G1B11

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C	In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
D	In conformance with the rules of the IARU

3. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	200 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D11

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
D	The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a RACES net control operator

8. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Send slower
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

9. - G2D05

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English

10. - G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B	14.000 - 14.050 MHz
C	14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D	14.070 - 14.100 MHz

11. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
B	Ripples in the ionosphere
C	A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Path distance and location

13. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B	The E-region is not present
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

14. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B	To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

15. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	Standing wave ratio
D	RF interference

16. - G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment

18. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To allow remote tuning
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To allow automatic band changing

19. - G5A12

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

Select	Answer
A	To maximize the transfer of power
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize radiation resistance

20. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

21. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 millihenrys
B	14.3 millihenrys
C	1000 millihenrys
D	70 millihenrys

22. - G6A19

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to each other
B	Interleaved
C	In line
D	At right angles to each other

23. - G6B15

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?

Select	Answer
A	Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
B	Reduced chance of incorrect mating
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Higher current carrying capacity

24. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	180 degrees

25. - G7B14

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

26. - G7C09

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	A digital processor chip
B	All of the these choices are correct
C	An analog to digital converter
D	A digital to analog converter

27. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Phase modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
C	It requests the packet be retransmitted
D	It terminates the contact

30. - G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	500 and 750 ohms
B	50 and 75 ohms
C	25 and 30 ohms
D	80 and 100 ohms

31. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	As high as possible above the ground

32. - G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Front to side ratio decreases
D	Front to back ratio decreases

33. - G9D01

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
B	Nearly Vertical Inductance System
C	Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave
D	Non-Varying Indicated SWR

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

35. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot