US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A14

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 2
C	Region 1
D	All three regions

2. - G1B06

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

Select	Answer
A	During a declared communications emergency
B	Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
C	Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
D	To control a space station

3. - G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
C	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
D	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination

5. - G1E09

What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	English only
B	Any language recognized by the United Nations
C	English, Spanish, French, or German
D	The language being used for the contact

6. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high fidelity voice modulation
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
B	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
C	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
D	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band

8. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	A slow speed until contact is established
D	The speed at which the CQ was sent

9. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

10. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improved ground-wave propagation
B	Improved high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improved chances of UHF ducting

12. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

13. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

14. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

15. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

Select	Answer
A	The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
B	The radiation pattern of an antenna
C	The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
D	The radiation resistance of an antenna

16. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Bypass inductor
D	Reverse-biased diode

17. - G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

Select	Answer
A	In an SWR bridge
B	In a receiver
C	In a transmitter
D	In a conductance bridge

18. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

Select	Answer
A	Photosynthesis
B	Photon decomposition
C	Photovoltaic conversion
D	Photon emission

19. - G5A13

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A transformer
D	A Pi-network

20. - G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	625 watts
D	5000 watts

21. - G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	10000 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

22. - G6A11

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

Select	Answer
A	A tunnel diode
B	A bipolar transistor
C	A varistor
D	A field effect transistor

23. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward Biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Beyond cutoff
D	Reverse Biased

24. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 4

25. - G7B13

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

26. - G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

Select	Answer
A	Twice the transmission line impedance
B	Substantially lower
C	About the same
D	Substantially higher

27. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency modulation

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The connection is dropped
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

30. - G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	300 ohms

31. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	32 feet

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It has poor directivity
D	Its impedance is too low for effective matching

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

Select	Answer
A	Only the two wires carrying voltage
B	Only the ground wire
C	All wires
D	Only the neutral wire

Figure G7-1