US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A11

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency end
B	The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency end
D	The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2. - G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

Select	Answer
A	Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
B	Monitor the frequency before transmitting
C	Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
D	All of these choices are correct

3. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

4. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
C	The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

5. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra Class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third party traffic maybe be transmitted

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Upper sideband

7. - G2B12

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

Select	Answer
A	Only when transmitting in RACES
B	At any time during an actual emergency
C	Only on authorized HF frequencies
D	At any time when transmitting in an organized net

8. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

9. - G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Band and/or frequency of the contact
C	Date and time of contact
D	Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

10. - G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

11. - G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
C	The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

12. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

13. - G3C05

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
C	The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

14. - G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
B	Q Multiplier
C	SWR Bridge
D	Balanced modulator

15. - G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

16. - G4C07

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
B	Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
C	Connect all equipment grounds together
D	Use a ground loop for best conductivity

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

18. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	"Picket Fencing" signal variation
C	The antenna system
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

20. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	1500 watts
C	530 watts
D	2120 watts

21. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	A resistor in series

22. - G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High stability
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High capacitance for given volume

23. - G6B14

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	RCA Phono
C	PL-259
D	Type N

24. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 11

25. - G7B07

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

26. - G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	RF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	IF amplifier

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	The RF clipping level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

28. - G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?

Select	Answer
A	31.5 Hz
B	500 Hz
C	1800 Hz
D	2300 Hz

29. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

Select	Answer
A	It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
B	It terminates the contact
C	It requests a change in transmitting protocol
D	It requests the packet be retransmitted

30. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

31. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials
D	Shorten the radials

32. - G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They have poor harmonic rejection

34. - G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
D	A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

35. - G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

Figure G7-1