US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	7.500 MHz
B	40.500 MHz
C	40.200 MHz
D	7.250 MHz

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	300 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

3. - G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
B	Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
C	Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
D	Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

4. - G1D01

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

5. - G1E11

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

Select	Answer
A	Fail-safe digital station
B	Robotically controlled station
C	Locally controlled station
D	Automatically controlled digital station

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 3 kHz
B	3 to 6 kHz
C	5 to 50 Hz
D	150 to 500 Hz

8. - G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	Stop sending

9. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low power transmit operation

10. - G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

Select	Answer
A	Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"
B	Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
C	Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
D	Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off

11. - G3A11

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

Select	Answer
A	11 years
B	8 minutes
C	40 hours
D	28 days

12. - G3B02

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B	Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band
C	Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
D	Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band

13. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

14. - G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B	To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C	To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
D	To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A wavemeter
D	A field strength meter

16. - G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

17. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

18. - G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D	The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent

19. - G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

20. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.5 percent
B	12.2 percent
C	25.9 percent
D	10.9 percent

21. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Mutual inductance
D	Mutual capacitance

22. - G6A16

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It will stay the same
B	It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
C	It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
D	It will become time dependent

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
C	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A04

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D	One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B12

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class A
C	Class AB
D	Class C

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
B	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
C	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
D	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process

27. - G8A10

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

28. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

29. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and Dash
B	Mark and Space
C	On and Off
D	High and Low

30. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

31. - G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

32. - G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	About twice as much
B	About 1.5 times as much
C	About the same
D	About 2/3 as much

33. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

34. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	All of these choices are correct

35. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder