US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2015-2019) Practice Test

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1. - G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies

2. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	300 feet
B	50 feet
C	100 feet
D	200 feet

3. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

4. - G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Extra Class
B	At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present
C	At least three General Class or higher VEs must observe the examination
D	At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must observe the examination

5. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
D	Under no circumstances

6. - G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

7. - G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

Select	Answer
A	A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B	An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band
C	An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D	A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

8. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Select	Answer
A	I acknowledge receipt
B	We have worked before
C	We have already confirmed by card
D	Send slower

9. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from its short-path heading
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the rising Sun
D	Toward the north

10. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	SSB
D	USB

11. - G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications are disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communications are improved

12. - G3B12

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Time of day and season
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The E layer
D	The F1 layer

14. - G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To slow down received CW signals for better copy
D	To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals

15. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A field strength meter

16. - G4C11

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

Select	Answer
A	To provide adequate grounding
B	To increase antenna gain
C	To remove noise from received signals
D	To increase antenna bandwidth

17. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

18. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

19. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

20. - G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	173 volts
C	346 volts
D	692 volts

21. - G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	33.3 ohms
C	0.30 ohms
D	0.33 ohms

22. - G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.7 volts

23. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit

24. - G7A03

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B	One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
C	Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
D	Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

25. - G7B02

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
B	The binary number system is most accurate
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state

26. - G7C11

What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
B	A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
C	A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
D	A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software

27. - G8A09

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	The RF clipping level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Attenuator level

28. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It results in the best signal to noise ratio
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It is required by FCC rules

29. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

30. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	5 to 1
C	1 to 1
D	Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

31. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	11 feet
D	21 feet

32. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

33. - G9D08

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
B	It has poor directivity
C	Its impedance is too low for effective matching
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - G0A04

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

35. - G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower