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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

SelectAnswer
AChange to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
BAll these choices are correct
CTake precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
DUse an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be bonded together with all other grounds
BThey must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
CBends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
DLightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A14250 kHz
B18155 kHz
C24900 kHz
D21300 kHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

SelectAnswer
AUnder no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
BAmateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
CAt any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
DOnly when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A300 baud
B19.6 kilobaud
C1200 baud
D56 kilobaud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

SelectAnswer
AOnly the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
BOn any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
COn any General or Technician class band segment
DOnly on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
BNo third-party traffic may be transmitted
CThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
DThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

SelectAnswer
ASay your call sign once
BSay “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
CSay “Breaker Breaker”
DSay “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

SelectAnswer
ANo more than 2 hours per week
BNo more than 1 hour per month
CNo more than 2 hours per month
DNo more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

SelectAnswer
AKey clicks
BReport was read from an S meter rather than estimated
CChirpy or unstable signal
D100 percent copy

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

SelectAnswer
ATo coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
BTo encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
CTo provide emergency and public safety communications
DTo conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
BApproximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
CAnywhere in the CW portion of the band
DAnywhere in the voice portion of the band

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

SelectAnswer
A4 to 8 minutes
B15 hours to several days
C14 days
D28 days

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

SelectAnswer
A180 miles
B1,200 miles
C12,000 miles
D2,500 miles

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

SelectAnswer
ABecause of temperature inversions
BBecause it is the highest
CBecause it is the densest
DBecause of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

SelectAnswer
AIt may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
BAccidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
CInterference from impulse noise will be eliminated
DMore stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA wavemeter
BA field strength meter
CAn oscilloscope
DA sidetone monitor

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

SelectAnswer
AAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
BGround the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
CPlace a ferrite choke on the cable
DConnect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BExcess intermodulation products
CExcessive background noise
DDistorted speech

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

SelectAnswer
AA series resistor must be in place
BThe solar panel must have a charge controller
CEnsure the battery is placed terminals-up
DGround the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

SelectAnswer
AIt is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
BIt equals the average of the branch currents
CIt decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
DIt equals the sum of the currents through each branch

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

SelectAnswer
A12 to 1
B24 to 1
C3.5 to 1
D144 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

SelectAnswer
AThe active region (between cutoff and saturation)
BSaturation and cutoff
CEnhancement and depletion modes
DPeak and valley current points

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

SelectAnswer
A4 GHz
B500 MHz
C40 GHz
D50 MHz

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt eliminates ground loop current
BIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
CIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils
DIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AAny RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
BAn amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
CAn amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
DA Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
ARelatively high-power output
BExtremely narrow tuning range
CPure sine wave output
DVariable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BIts encoding provides error correction
CIts bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
DIt is sideband sensitive

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

SelectAnswer
AIt improves impedance matching of the antenna
BIt minimizes power consumption in the receiver
CIt results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
DIt is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

SelectAnswer
AVolumetric
BViterbi
CVaricode
DBinary

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
BThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
CThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
DThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A42 feet
B84 feet
C132 feet
D263 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
BThe relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
CThe ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
DThe number of directors versus the number of reflectors

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AImpedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
BSWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
CGain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
DElement length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom