US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	160 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
B	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
C	All these choices are correct
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	No part
B	Anywhere in the band
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	The received signal is more natural sounding
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	It provides more power output

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only SSTV contacts
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Stop sending
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Send more slowly

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	Distorted speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The control computers
C	The battery charging system
D	The fuel delivery system

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	1.414
C	0.707
D	2.00

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Screen grid
C	Control grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	500 MHz
C	4 GHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Return loss
C	Insertion loss
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	It is sideband sensitive

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	On and off
C	Dot and dash
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	450 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	100 ohms

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Gain increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Lazy H
C	Inverted L
D	Sloper

Figure G7-1