US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	Technician only

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only contest stations
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	I have received and understood
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It improves the resolution of the readings

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Bypass inductor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Reverse-biased diode

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The product of current and voltage
C	The product of current and reactance
D	The ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	0.07 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Inherently more stable
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Rolloff frequency
C	Cutoff frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
B	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
C	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Heterodyning
C	Rolloff
D	Intermodulation

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	Dot and dash
C	Mark and space
D	On and off

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To enable multiband operation