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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

SelectAnswer
AContact the FCC for permission to transmit
BPerform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
CPerform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
DUse an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

SelectAnswer
ALead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
BHigh voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
CTin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
DRF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

SelectAnswer
AThe upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
BThe lower frequency portion
CThe upper frequency portion
DThe lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

SelectAnswer
ARegular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
BUnidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
CTransmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
DAll these choices are correct

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

SelectAnswer
ASubmit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
BType-certify equipment to FCC standards
CObtain an experimental license from the FCC
DPublicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

SelectAnswer
ATechnician only
BNone, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
CGeneral and Technician
DAmateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

SelectAnswer
AA system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
BThese frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
CThese frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
DA system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

SelectAnswer
AUpper sideband
BDouble sideband
CLower sideband
DSuppressed sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

SelectAnswer
AFollow the voluntary band plan
BIdentify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
CAll these choices are correct
DListen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

SelectAnswer
ATransmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
BAn operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
CAutomatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
DBreaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

SelectAnswer
ATo help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
BThe FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
CThe log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
DThe FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

SelectAnswer
AYou may have selected the wrong baud rate
BAll these choices are correct
CThe mark and space frequencies may be reversed
DYou may be listening on the wrong sideband

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AAt any point
BAt the summer solstice
COnly at the maximum point
DOnly at the minimum point

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

SelectAnswer
AThe Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
BThe Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
CThe Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
DThe Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

SelectAnswer
AThe E region is unstable during daylight hours
BThe F region is unstable during daylight hours
CThe F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
DThe D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

SelectAnswer
AReduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
BAll these choices are correct
CReduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
DIncrease power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

SelectAnswer
ATransmitter
BReceiver
CAntenna and feed line
DAll these choices are correct

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

SelectAnswer
AReverse-biased diode
BBypass inductor
CBypass capacitor
DForward-biased diode

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce radiation resistance
BTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
CTo lower the radiation angle
DTo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

SelectAnswer
AOpposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
BReinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
CReinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
DOpposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

SelectAnswer
AThe RMS value
BThe peak value
CThe reciprocal of the RMS value
DThe peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

SelectAnswer
A33.3 microfarads
B3.0 microfarads
C300 microfarads
D0.33 microfarads

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

SelectAnswer
AHigh stability
BHigh capacitance for given volume
CTight tolerance
DComparatively low cost

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

SelectAnswer
AA nickel plated version of the PL-259
BA moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
CA small bayonet connector used for data circuits
DA low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

SelectAnswer
A270 degrees
B180 degrees
C90 degrees
D360 degrees

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SelectAnswer
AFM
BAM
CSSB
DAll these choices are correct

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

SelectAnswer
AUsed in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
BUsed in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
CUsed in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
DUsed in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

SelectAnswer
AThe difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
BTransmit power minus receiver sensitivity
CThe opposite of fade margin
DReceiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

SelectAnswer
AImage frequency
BRF input
CLocal oscillator
DBeat frequency oscillator

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

SelectAnswer
A902 MHz
B432 MHz
C2.4 GHz
D10.7 GHz

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

SelectAnswer
A100 ohms
B450 ohms
C50 ohms
D75 ohms

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

SelectAnswer
AIt is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
BIt is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
CIt has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
DIt is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
A3/4 wavelength
B1 wavelength
C1/4 wavelength
D1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
DA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground