US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	In series with each ground lead
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
D	At the closest power pole ground electrode

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The entire band

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	HF communication is disturbed
D	HF communication is improved

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	Received frequency may become unstable
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Shunt
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Bypass

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The peak value

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	144 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for given volume
B	High stability
C	Comparatively low cost
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	100%

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
B	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Detection
C	Rolloff
D	Intermodulation

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR
B	PSK31
C	MFSK16
D	SSB-SC

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation