US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	All HF bands
C	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	They are not permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
B	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
C	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
B	All these choices are correct
C	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Using surge suppressor power outlets
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To reduce radiation resistance
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	B
C	Y
D	X

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	5.9 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	MMIC
C	Analog
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal is 3 dB over S9
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is S3 (weak signals)

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The physical length of the boom
B	The spacing of each element along the boom
C	The number of elements on the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1