US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	At the closest power pole ground electrode
B	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
C	In series with each ground lead
D	Where the feed lines enter the building

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	RF clipping level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
C	Switch to the opposite sideband
D	Decrease power and continue to transmit

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	All these choices are correct
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A wavemeter
C	A field strength meter
D	A sidetone monitor

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	70 millihenries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Its reactance increases
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	It becomes capacitive

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	Digital

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	6
C	16
D	3

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The sum and difference
C	The average
D	The ratio

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Viterbi

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	Station equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Very low
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Approximately 50 ohms