US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	All these choices are correct
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	There is no age limit
C	18 years
D	21 years

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	All these choices are correct
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Closing station now
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
B	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
C	A form of Packet Radio
D	All of the above

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Transmitter power output
C	Received signal strength
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	All these choices are correct
C	A transformer
D	A Pi-network

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	5.9 ohms
D	17 ohms

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Long life
C	High discharge current
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	50 MHz
C	4 GHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Diodes

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	IF amplifier
C	Filter
D	RF amplifier

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Intermodulation
C	Rolloff
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters are sent with more power
B	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Gain increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands