US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	Outside the building
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degrade ground wave propagation
D	Improve ground wave propagation

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Scatter
C	Chordal hop
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Excessive background noise
C	Distorted speech
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Susceptance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	173 volts
B	346 volts
C	245 volts
D	692 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	6 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward biased
B	Reverse biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	Zero

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
B	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
C	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
D	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The sum and difference
C	The average
D	The ratio

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Long path propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Very low
C	Very high
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1