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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

SelectAnswer
ALocate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
BPosition the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
CMake sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
DMake sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

SelectAnswer
AAcceptable bandwidth limits
BElectrical safety of the station
CAcceptable modulation limits
DRF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

SelectAnswer
A28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
BThe entire band
C28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

SelectAnswer
AThe ITU
BThe FCC
CThe IEEE
DThe control operator

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A2000 watts PEP output
B1000 watts PEP output
C200 watts PEP output
D1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
AFor as long as your current license is valid
B365 days
C180 days
D30 days

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
BNo third-party traffic may be transmitted
CThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
DThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

SelectAnswer
ADouble sideband
BLower sideband
CUpper sideband
DSuppressed sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
BOnly SSTV contacts
COnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
DOnly digital contacts

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

SelectAnswer
AClosing station now
BOperating full break-in
CListening only for a specific station or stations
DNo US stations should call

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AIdentify your station according to normal FCC regulations
BAll these choices are correct
CSend a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
DSubmit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

SelectAnswer
ASend an email to the system control operator
BTransmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
CRespond when the station broadcasts its SSID
DSend QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

SelectAnswer
AA temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
BRipples in the geomagnetic force
CA thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
DA sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

SelectAnswer
A12,000 miles
B2,500 miles
C180 miles
D1,200 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AThe F1 region
BThe D region
CThe F2 region
DThe E region

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BIncrease power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
CReduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
DReduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

SelectAnswer
AComplex impedances can be easily measured
BGreater precision
CAn oscilloscope uses less power
DComplex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

SelectAnswer
AAvoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
BConnect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
CConnect all ground conductors in series
DBond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

SelectAnswer
AIt is 10 times less powerful
BIt is 100 times more powerful
CIt is 20 times less powerful
DIt is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
BTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
CTo lower the radiation angle
DTo reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

SelectAnswer
AImpedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
BResonance causes impedance to be very high
CResonance causes impedance to be very low
DImpedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A625 watts
B5000 watts
C2500 watts
D8.75 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

SelectAnswer
ATo accommodate the higher current of the primary
BTo prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
CTo improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
DTo ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistor could overheat
BThe resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
CThe resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
DThe resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ADigital
BProgrammable Logic
CMMIC
DAnalog

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils
BIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage
CIt eliminates ground loop current
DIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

SelectAnswer
A50%
BLess than 50%
C100%
DMore than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

SelectAnswer
ATo minimize radiation resistance
BTo reduce power supply ripple
CTo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
DTo minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

SelectAnswer
A8-tone frequency shift keying
BAmplitude compressed AM
CVestigial sideband
D8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

SelectAnswer
ATo aid in tuning your transmitter
BTo prevent overmodulation
CSome modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
DTo allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

SelectAnswer
AFT8
BMFSK32
CAMTOR
DMSK144

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

SelectAnswer
AA difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
BOperating an antenna at its resonant frequency
CUsing more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
DFeeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A16 feet
B11 feet
C8 feet
D21 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

SelectAnswer
AThe reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
BThey are all the same length
CRelative length depends on the frequency of operation
DThe reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AGain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
BSWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
CElement length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
DImpedance varies periodically as a function of frequency