US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
B	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The battery charging system
C	The control computers
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 9 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	5.9 ohms
D	17 ohms

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	Digital

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	100%
D	50%

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
D	Frequency modulated RF

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	Station equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner