US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Attenuator level
C	RF clipping level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Send slower
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	All these choices are correct
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	The ALC action distorts the signal

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	15 dB
B	18 dB
C	12 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	1500 watts
C	2120 watts
D	530 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Analog
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Image and harmonic
B	Cutoff and rolloff
C	Upper and lower half-power
D	Pole and zero

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Second harmonics
C	Even-order
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The connection is dropped
D	The checksum overflows

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	1:4
C	4:1
D	2:1

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	132 feet
C	263 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground