US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	All these choices are correct
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
D	Overvoltage on the hot wires

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am ready to receive
C	I am quitting for the day
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A special hardware modem
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	8 minutes
C	20 to 40 hours
D	28 days

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The E region
C	The F2 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced peak
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
C	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
D	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Distorted speech
C	All these choices are correct
D	Excess intermodulation products

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	240.0 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	3.0 microfarads
B	33.3 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	300 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	MMIC
C	Programmable Logic
D	Analog

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An analog mixer
B	A digital mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	Fewer digital components are required

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	3F1-F2
B	5F1-3F2
C	All these choices are correct
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
C	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
D	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter radials
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Lower ground losses

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies

Figure G7-1