US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	No part
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	All these choices are correct
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Along the gray line
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Toward the rising sun

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Improve HF long path propagation

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
B	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
C	Check the A-index
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Chordal hop
C	Short-path
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
D	To prevent transient overmodulation

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very low

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	240.0 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase efficiency

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	All these choices are correct
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A digital mixer
C	An analog mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Synthesizing
C	Frequency inversion
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	Dot and dash
C	On and off
D	High and low

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	450 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	75 ohms

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	263 feet
C	84 feet
D	132 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies