US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	Parallel to the water supply line
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	11 meters
C	30 meters
D	60 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	USB
D	SSB

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	15 hours to several days
D	14 days

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To prevent key clicks on CW
D	To prevent transient overmodulation

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Less prone to overload
C	Faster response
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	24 volts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	576.9 nanofarads
C	1,733 picofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	1.0 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	Transformers and transducers
D	All these choices are correct

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class B
C	Class AB
D	Class A

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Mixer interference
C	Image response
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Preamble
C	Trailer
D	Directory

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	1:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	5:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies