US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It cools body tissue
C	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
D	It heats body tissue

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
D	A US operator/primary station license

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	10 watts
C	100 watts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Nets have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the critical frequency
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the highest
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A field strength meter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	40 volts
B	360 volts
C	120 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Analog
B	Programmable Logic
C	Digital
D	MMIC

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Synchronous
C	Full-wave
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Pole and zero
B	Image and harmonic
C	Cutoff and rolloff
D	Upper and lower half-power

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	At the center of the antenna
D	Parallel to the antenna element

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Wide bandwidth