US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The FCC
C	The ITU
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	RMS input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
D	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
C	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	All these choices are correct
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	The ALC action distorts the signal

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass inductor

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	346 volts
B	245 volts
C	173 volts
D	692 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	Low power consumption
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Diodes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	50%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Insufficient audio

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Beat frequency oscillator
B	Local oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	RF input

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Request retransmission of the packet
B	Entire file received correctly
C	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
D	Packet was received without error

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Isotropic
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground