US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	Its duty cycle
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	All these choices are correct
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	60 meters
C	11 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	30 days
C	365 days
D	180 days

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 4
C	Region 2
D	Region 1

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Send more slowly
C	Zero beat my signal
D	I am troubled by static

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
B	A form of Packet Radio
C	All of the above
D	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	All these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To increase overall efficiency
B	To reduce harmonic radiation
C	To prevent excessive drive
D	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	15 dB
C	6 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	“Picket fencing”
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 9 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	12 to 1

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	500 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	50%
C	Less than 50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	132 feet
C	42 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	In the plane of the loop
B	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
C	Broadside to the loop
D	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional