US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
C	All these choices are correct
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	All these choices are correct
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	Channels 42 through 45
C	Anywhere in the band
D	No part

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Switch to the opposite sideband
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Decrease power and continue to transmit

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	Send slower
C	I have received and understood
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
B	Toward the rising sun
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is improved
B	HF communication is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	Check the A-index
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	240.0 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	80 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Its reactance increases
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	Only one diode is required
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	16
C	8
D	6

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Long path propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Backscatter propagation

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	21 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
B	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Wide bandwidth