US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It cools body tissue
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	20 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	All these choices are correct
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	1500 watts PEP
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	All these choices are correct
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A special hardware modem
D	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
B	60 meters and 40 meters
C	30 meters and 20 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	0.707
C	1.414
D	1.00

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Forward biased
C	Reverse biased
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Input amplifier gain
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Single sideband

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Intermodulation
C	Detection
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	FT8, FT4, and FST4

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground