US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	Technician only
C	General and Technician
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communication is improved

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Gain of a directional antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	All these choices are correct

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	67 ohms

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	8
D	16

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
B	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
C	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground losses
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Shorter radials
D	Lower feed point impedance

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	They are all the same length
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1