US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its power density
C	Its frequency
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	15 amperes

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	RMS input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	All these choices are correct
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A special hardware modem
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	28 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When high precision is desired
D	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	Current and voltage are equal
C	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
D	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	100 watts
C	400 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	High stability
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	BNC
C	Type N
D	PL-259

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Inherently more stable
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	SSB
C	All these choices are correct
D	FM

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Pole and zero
B	Upper and lower half-power
C	Cutoff and rolloff
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Mixer interference
C	Intermediate interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The physical length of the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The number of elements on the boom

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization