US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	All these choices are correct
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	All these choices are correct
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	All these choices are correct
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must be for other licensed amateurs
C	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
D	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-45
B	Terminal Node Controller
C	Printer/Server
D	Gateway

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Receiver
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Excessive background noise
C	Distorted speech
D	Excess intermodulation products

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Inherently more stable
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class AB
C	Class B
D	Class C

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The average
C	The arithmetic product
D	The ratio

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Inverted L
C	Inverted V
D	Sloper