US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Gateway
B	Terminal Node Controller
C	RJ-45
D	Printer/Server

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Chordal hop
C	Faraday rotation
D	Short-path

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Farad
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1060 watts
C	1500 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	6
C	8
D	3

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
B	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 100 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Ohms per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Very high
C	Very low
D	Approximately 50 ohms

Figure G7-1