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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

SelectAnswer
ANotify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
BAll these choices are correct
CPerform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
DPost a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

SelectAnswer
AFuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
BThe generator must be insulated from ground
CAll these choices are correct
DThe generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters
B20 meters
C30 meters
D12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

SelectAnswer
A200 watts PEP output
B20 watts PEP output
C100 watts PEP output
D10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AYou must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
BYou must keep a record of all third-party traffic
CYou must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
DIf you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

SelectAnswer
AAnyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
BOnly persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
CAny person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
DAny person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
BThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
CNo third-party traffic may be transmitted
DThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
ALower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
BBecause it is fully compatible with an AM detector
CLower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
DIt is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

SelectAnswer
ANets have priority
BQSOs in progress have priority
CExcept during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
DContest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

SelectAnswer
AStop sending
BI am troubled by static
CSend more slowly
DZero beat my signal

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

SelectAnswer
AThe FCC requires a log of all international contacts
BThe FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
CThe log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
DTo help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

SelectAnswer
AAnywhere in the CW portion of the band
BApproximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
CAnywhere in the voice portion of the band
DApproximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
BThe short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
CThe short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
DThe relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

SelectAnswer
AUse a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
BAll these choices are correct
CCheck the A-index
DSend a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

SelectAnswer
APropagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
BPropagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
CSignals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
DOnly a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
BTo eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
CTo restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
DTo remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

SelectAnswer
AFaster response
BBetter for measuring computer circuits
CLess prone to overload
DHigher precision

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AClearly audible speech
BOn-and-off humming or clicking
CA steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
DDistorted speech

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases average power
BIt increases peak power
CIt reduces intermodulation distortion
DIt reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BThe fuel delivery system
CThe battery charging system
DThe control computers

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AConductance
BReactance
CAdmittance
DReluctance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

SelectAnswer
AIt equals the sum of the currents through each branch
BIt decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
CIt equals the average of the branch currents
DIt is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

SelectAnswer
A12 to 1
B24 to 1
C3.5 to 1
D144 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

SelectAnswer
AThe active region (between cutoff and saturation)
BPeak and valley current points
CSaturation and cutoff
DEnhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

SelectAnswer
ALarge values of inductance may be obtained
BMost of the magnetic field is contained in the core
CThe magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
DAll these choices are correct

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 7
BSymbol 2
CSymbol 11
DSymbol 1

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

SelectAnswer
AClass AB
BClass B
CClass A
DClass C

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce power supply ripple
BTo minimize transmitter power output
CTo minimize radiation resistance
DTo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency modulation
BFrequency convolution
CFrequency conversion
DFrequency transformation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

SelectAnswer
A3F1-F2
B2F1-F2
CAll these choices are correct
D5F1-3F2

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

SelectAnswer
ADMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
BFT8, FT4, and FST4
CWSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
DWinlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

SelectAnswer
AHigher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
BTransmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
CHigher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
DHigher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A11 feet
B8 feet
C16 feet
D21 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe physical length of the boom
BThe spacing of each element along the boom
CThe number of elements on the boom
DAll these choices are correct

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
DA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1