US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	All these choices are correct
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must be for other licensed amateurs
C	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	I am troubled by static
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	All these choices are correct
D	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Transmitter power output
C	Received signal strength
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	3.0 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Synchronous
C	Full-wave
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An analog mixer
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	IF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	Filter

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	Its encoding provides error correction
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	416.7 Hz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters are sent with more power
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high