US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	200 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	100 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Sending without error
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path
C	Chordal hop
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	15 dB
C	12 dB
D	18 dB

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	20.6 percent
D	25.9 percent

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Capacitive coupling

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High stability

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Forward biased
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier gain
C	All these choices are correct
D	Input amplifier noise figure

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	The connection is dropped
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands