US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	All these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	At the closest power pole ground electrode
C	In series with each ground lead
D	Where the feed lines enter the building

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
B	All these choices are correct
C	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
D	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
C	A US operator/primary station license
D	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Closing station now
C	Operating full break-in
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
B	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
C	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
D	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Poor propagation at any time of day
B	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
D	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
B	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Excess intermodulation products
C	All these choices are correct
D	Excessive background noise

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Resistance is cancelled

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Displacement current coupling
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave
B	Full-wave
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Synchronous

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	Less than 50%
D	50%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	Vestigial sideband
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Hemispherical
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To prevent out-of-band operation