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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

SelectAnswer
AFile an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
BAll these choices are correct
CTake action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
DSecure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be bonded together with all other grounds
BLightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
CBends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
DThey must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

SelectAnswer
A80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

SelectAnswer
AThey may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
BThey are not permitted
COnly “Q” signals are permitted
DThey are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

SelectAnswer
A1200 watts PEP output
B200 watts PEP output
C1000 watts PEP output
D1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
A180 days
B30 days
CFor as long as your current license is valid
D365 days

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

SelectAnswer
ARegion 1
BRegion 3
CRegion 4
DRegion 2

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ATransmit audio or microphone gain
BAttenuator level
CAntenna inductance or capacitance
DRF clipping level

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

SelectAnswer
A150 Hz to 500 Hz
B3 kHz to 6 kHz
C1 kHz to 3 kHz
D5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

SelectAnswer
AStop sending
BSend more slowly
CZero beat my signal
DI am troubled by static

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide emergency and public safety communications
BTo encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
CTo conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
DTo coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

SelectAnswer
AReceiver attenuator set to -12 dB
BComputer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
CA vertically polarized antenna
DA special hardware modem

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AOnly at the maximum point
BAt the summer solstice
CAt any point
DOnly at the minimum point

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

SelectAnswer
ADouble-hop propagation along the path is more common
BHF communications over the path are enhanced
CPropagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
DPropagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

SelectAnswer
AThe highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
BThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
CThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
DThe lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

SelectAnswer
AReceived signals may become distorted
BCW signals may become severely attenuated
CReceived frequency may become unstable
DReceived frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

SelectAnswer
AWhen measuring the frequency of an oscillator
BWhen adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
CWhen testing logic circuits
DWhen high precision is desired

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

SelectAnswer
AConnect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
BConnect all ground conductors in series
CAvoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
DBond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

SelectAnswer
ATransmitter power output
BReceived signal strength
CCarrier suppression
DImpedance

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

SelectAnswer
AThe control computers
BAll these choices are correct
CThe battery charging system
DThe fuel delivery system

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of voltage to current
BThe product of current and reactance
CThe ratio of current to voltage
DThe product of current and voltage

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A2500 watts
B5000 watts
C8.75 watts
D625 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A0.30 henries
B30 millihenries
C3.3 henries
D3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction
BThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
CThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
DThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

SelectAnswer
AHigh power handling capability
BBetter suited for RF amplification
CLow power consumption
DBetter suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage
BIt eliminates ground loop current
CIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils
DIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

SelectAnswer
AAdd the RF input power to the DC output power
BDivide the RF output power by the DC input power
CMultiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
DDivide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AImage and harmonic
BPole and zero
CCutoff and rolloff
DUpper and lower half-power

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

SelectAnswer
AThe difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
BThe sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
CThe financial costs associated with operating a radio link
DThe sum of antenna gains minus system losses

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

SelectAnswer
AIt is required by FCC rules
BIt minimizes power consumption in the receiver
CIt improves impedance matching of the antenna
DIt results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal is 3 dB over S9
BThe signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
CThe signal is S3 (weak signals)
DThe signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
BThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
CThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
DThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A16 feet
B21 feet
C11 feet
D8 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

SelectAnswer
AA section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
BA shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
CA 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
DA series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

SelectAnswer
ADirectional receiving for MF and low HF bands
BDirectional transmitting for low HF bands
CPortable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
DPortable direction finding at lower HF frequencies