US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Operating full break-in
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because of temperature inversions
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ohmmeter
C	An ammeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Rapid recharge
C	High discharge current
D	Long life

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	In the tunnel-effect region
C	Reverse biased
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Cutoff frequency
B	Rolloff frequency
C	Neper frequency
D	Notch frequency

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Upper case letters are sent with more power
C	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower ground losses

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Directional transmitting for low HF bands