US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its frequency
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its power density

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable modulation limits
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	Electrical safety of the station

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When under automatic control
D	When messages are not encrypted

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	Attenuator level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have worked before
C	I have received and understood
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because of temperature inversions
C	Because it is the highest
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A wavemeter
C	A field strength meter
D	A sidetone monitor

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	X
C	Z
D	B

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	6 watts
D	2.4 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Catastrophic failure is likely
C	Its reactance increases
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	RCA Phono
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Synchronous
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	6
C	8
D	3

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase inversion
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Header
C	Trailer
D	Preamble

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	On the same side as the feed point
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo