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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BIts frequency
CIts power density
DIts duty cycle

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

SelectAnswer
AThe generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
BThe generator must be insulated from ground
CAll these choices are correct
DFuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

SelectAnswer
A28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
BThe entire band
C28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

SelectAnswer
AUnidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
BEncrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
COccasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
DAutomatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A2.8 kHz
B3 kHz
C1.8 kHz
D5.6 kHz

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

SelectAnswer
AAt least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
BAt least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
CAt least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
DAt least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
BThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
CThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
DNo third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

SelectAnswer
ASuppressed sideband
BLower sideband
CUpper sideband
DDouble sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

SelectAnswer
AImmediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
BImmediately cease all transmissions
CAcknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
DInform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

SelectAnswer
AMatching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
BOperating split to avoid interference on frequency
CSending without error
DMatching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
BTo be sure the contact will count for award programs
CTo follow standard radiogram structure
DTo allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

SelectAnswer
AA form of Packet Radio
BAll of the above
CAn amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
DA wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

SelectAnswer
AIt disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
BIt enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
CIt disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
DNone, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
APeriodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
BSignal strength increased by 3 dB
CA slightly delayed echo might be heard
DThe signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe short path azimuth of a distant station
BThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
CThe long path azimuth of a distant station
DThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

SelectAnswer
ATo eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
BTo remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
CTo restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
DTo reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

SelectAnswer
ALinearity
BPercentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
CPercentage of frequency modulation
DPercentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

SelectAnswer
ASolder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
BA soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
CSolder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
DAll these choices are correct

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

SelectAnswer
AIt is 20 times more powerful
BIt is 20 times less powerful
CIt is 100 times more powerful
DIt is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
BTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
CTo lower the radiation angle
DTo reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

SelectAnswer
AReinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
BOpposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
COpposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
DReinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

SelectAnswer
AThe RMS value
BThe peak-to-peak value
CThe reciprocal of the RMS value
DThe peak value

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

SelectAnswer
A3.0 microfarads
B0.33 microfarads
C33.3 microfarads
D300 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

SelectAnswer
AScreen grid
BControl grid
CSuppressor grid
DTrigger electrode

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

SelectAnswer
AA small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
BA type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
CA connector designed for serial multiple access signals
DA type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
BIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage
CIt eliminates ground loop current
DIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

SelectAnswer
A100%
B50%
CLess than 50%
DMore than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

SelectAnswer
AAutomatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
BAll types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
CThe need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
DMinimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
BBy keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
CBy changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
DBy using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AIntercept point
BEven-order
CSecond harmonics
DOdd-order

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

SelectAnswer
AUpper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
BUpper case letters are sent with more power
CHigher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
DError correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

SelectAnswer
A5:1
B2:1
C1:2
D1:5

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

SelectAnswer
AIt is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
BIt is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
CIt has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
DIt is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
A3/4 wavelength
B1 wavelength
C1/4 wavelength
D1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

SelectAnswer
ALazy H
BInverted V
CSloper
DInverted L