US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
B	All these choices are correct
C	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	250 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Increase your power
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	USB
C	LSB
D	DSB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Power output from a transmitter
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To reduce radiation resistance
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Susceptance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	100 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	Its thickness
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An analog mixer
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Zero
B	45 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	5F1-3F2
B	2F1-F2
C	All these choices are correct
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
C	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By extending and retracting the whip