US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It cools body tissue
B	It causes radiation poisoning
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	All HF bands
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Change frequency
D	Repeat everything twice

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send a NAK code
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters and 160 meters
B	30 meters and 20 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F2 region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	No change will be observed
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Bond equipment enclosures together
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	All these choices are correct
C	The fuel delivery system
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is divided by 4
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Digital
C	MMIC
D	Analog

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	Fewer digital components are required
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
B	8-tone frequency shift keying
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Amplitude compressed AM

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Mixer
C	Reactance modulator
D	Balanced converter

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Trailer
C	Directory
D	Header

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Hemispherical
C	Isotropic
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By varying its body capacitance