US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its power density
C	Its frequency
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When under automatic control
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have worked before
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
B	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
C	To follow standard radiogram structure
D	To be sure the contact will count for award programs

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A special hardware modem
D	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The F2 region
C	The E region
D	The D region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An ohmmeter
C	A signal generator
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
D	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	3200 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	3
C	8
D	6

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	16 kHz

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 GHz
B	10.7 GHz
C	902 MHz
D	432 MHz

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Decibels per 100 feet
C	Ohms per 100 feet
D	Decibels per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
B	In the plane of the loop
C	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
D	Broadside to the loop