US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	30 meters
C	11 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
B	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	All these choices are correct
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am quitting for the day
C	I am ready to receive
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	All these choices are correct
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
B	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
C	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	A ground loop
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
D	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	1.414
C	2.00
D	0.707

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	High stability
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	Only one diode is required
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Filtering
B	All these choices are correct
C	Detection
D	Modulation

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
B	Its encoding provides error correction
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Quadrature response
C	Mixer interference
D	Image response

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground losses
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground