US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its duty cycle
C	Its power density
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Outside the building
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Under no circumstances except for emergencies

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	SK
C	KN
D	AR

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	Only at the maximum point
C	At any point
D	Only at the minimum point

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Check the A-index
C	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
D	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	15 dB
C	6 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	1.0 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	0.3 volts

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its conductivity
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	Its thickness
D	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
C	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The checksum overflows

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By varying the base loading inductance
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By extending and retracting the whip