US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 2 hours per month
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	All these choices are correct
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Always call on the station’s frequency
B	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	Antenna and feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1,733 picofarads
B	576.9 nanofarads
C	10.750 nanofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Inherently more stable
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	RF amplifier
C	Filter
D	IF amplifier

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Intermodulation
C	Heterodyning
D	Rolloff

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground