US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Improve HF long path propagation
B	Reduce long delayed echoes
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Higher precision
C	Faster response
D	Less prone to overload

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Bond equipment enclosures together
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	12 dB
C	18 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The battery charging system
B	The control computers
C	The fuel delivery system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	A length of transmission line
C	All these choices are correct
D	A transformer

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	High stability

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	All these choices are correct
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class C
C	Class A
D	Class B

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	5F1-3F2
B	2F1-F2
C	3F1-F2
D	All these choices are correct

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and off
B	Dot and dash
C	Mark and space
D	High and low

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	On the same side as the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo