US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	All these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the hot wires
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	60 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
B	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
C	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	10 watts RMS
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
C	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Toward the north
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
B	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters and 160 meters
B	60 meters and 40 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Short-path
C	Chordal hop
D	Scatter

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An ohmmeter
C	A signal generator
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass inductor
D	Bypass capacitor

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	Z
C	B
D	Y

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Digital
C	Analog
D	MMIC

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	3
C	6
D	8

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Rolloff
C	Notch depth
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Phase inversion
C	Synthesizing
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Varicode
C	Volumetric
D	Viterbi

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Very high
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1