US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It provides more power output
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	At any point
D	Only at the minimum point

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	2500 watts
C	5000 watts
D	8.75 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Capacitive coupling

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High stability
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The number of stages in the counter
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Input amplifier gain
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	They are all the same length
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
B	In the plane of the loop
C	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
D	Broadside to the loop