US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its power density
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Switch to the opposite sideband
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
B	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
C	All of the above
D	A form of Packet Radio

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Susceptance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	80 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	6 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	All these choices are correct
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
D	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Detection
C	Intermodulation
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	High and low
C	Dot and dash
D	On and off

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	100 ohms

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	At the center of the antenna
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Very low
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very high