US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It cools body tissue
B	It causes radiation poisoning
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	Stop sending
C	I am troubled by static
D	Zero beat my signal

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
C	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
D	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced dip
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The product of current and voltage
C	The product of current and reactance
D	The ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 watts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 61 milliwatts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	40 volts
C	120 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for given volume
B	Tight tolerance
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High stability

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	MFSK32
C	FT8
D	MSK144

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By extending and retracting the whip