US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	All these choices are correct
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
B	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Only those of the remote station’s country
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Terminal Node Controller
B	Printer/Server
C	Gateway
D	RJ-45

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Reduce long delayed echoes
C	Improve HF long path propagation
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Poor propagation at any time of day
B	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	World-wide propagation during daylight hours

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Shunt
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Bypass

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.6 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	10.9 percent

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 millihenries
B	14.3 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	7 millihenries

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A low noise figure VHF connector
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	8
D	16

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
B	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
C	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
D	The opposite of fade margin

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The sum and difference
C	The average
D	The ratio

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and off
B	Dot and dash
C	High and low
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

Figure G7-1