US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A US operator/primary station license
B	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
C	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
C	The third party is not a US citizen
D	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Stop sending
D	I am troubled by static

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
D	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce long delayed echoes
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F1 region
C	The E region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Power output from a transmitter
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	Clearly audible speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	200 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	1,000 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	Much less leakage than any other type
D	High capacitance for a given volume

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A type-S to type-M adaptor
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature response
B	Mixer interference
C	Image response
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is 3 dB over S9
C	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
D	The signal is S3 (weak signals)

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	2:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By deploying a capacitance hat
D	By varying its body capacitance

Figure G7-1