US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All these choices are correct
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Observation of propagation and reception
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS output from the transmitter
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
D	A US operator/primary station license

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	10 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	BK
C	KN
D	SK

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters and 20 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
C	60 meters and 40 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
D	Two swept frequency tones

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
D	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Y
C	X
D	Z

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	1,733 picofarads
C	3,583 picofarads
D	576.9 nanofarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	4 GHz
C	500 MHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class C
C	Class AB
D	Class B

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Heterodyning
C	Frequency inversion
D	Phase inversion

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Overmodulation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

Figure G7-1