US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	Technician only
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Under no circumstances
C	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	BK
C	SK
D	KN

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK code
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Bond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Impedance
C	Received signal strength
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
D	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	All these choices are correct
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Input amplifier gain
D	Demodulator stage bandwidth

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Coil the radials
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	Opposite the feed point