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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BNotify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
CPerform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
DPost a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

SelectAnswer
AWhere the feed lines enter the building
BAt the closest power pole ground electrode
COn the antenna, opposite the feed point
DIn series with each ground lead

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A20 meters
B30 meters
C12 meters
D160 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

SelectAnswer
A10 watts PEP output
B100 watts PEP output
C200 watts PEP output
D20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A1500 watts PEP output
B2000 watts PEP output
C1000 watts PEP output
D200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
A30 days
B180 days
CFor as long as your current license is valid
D365 days

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BWhen using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
CWhen operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
DWhen a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

SelectAnswer
ASSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
BSSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
COnly one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
DOnly one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly digital contacts
BOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
COnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
DOnly SSTV contacts

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

SelectAnswer
A“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

SelectAnswer
ACompare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
BCompare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
CAll these choices are correct
DCompare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

SelectAnswer
ABetween 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
BAt the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
CIn the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
DAt the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

SelectAnswer
AA sudden drop in the solar flux index
BA thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
CRipples in the geomagnetic force
DA temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

SelectAnswer
AWorld-wide propagation during daylight hours
BPoor propagation at any time of day
CHeavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
DHigh levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

SelectAnswer
AThe lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
BThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
CThe highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
DThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

SelectAnswer
ABy clipping noise peaks
BBy reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
CBy temporarily increasing received bandwidth
DBy redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA sidetone monitor
BA wavemeter
CAn oscilloscope
DA field strength meter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

SelectAnswer
AA ground loop
BCorrosion of the ground rod
CHigh RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
DOverheating of ground straps

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
BAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
CAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
DAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
BTo reduce radiation resistance
CTo lower the radiation angle
DTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AConductance
BAdmittance
CReactance
DReluctance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

SelectAnswer
AThe RMS value
BThe peak-to-peak value
CThe peak value
DThe reciprocal of the RMS value

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

SelectAnswer
A14.3 millihenries
B70 millihenries
C1,000 millihenries
D7 millihenries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

SelectAnswer
A10.5 volts
B8.5 volts
C6 volts
D12 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

SelectAnswer
ABy creating an impedance in the current’s path
BFerrites expel magnetic fields
CIt converts common-mode current to differential mode current
DBy creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 6
BSymbol 1
CSymbol 7
DSymbol 11

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThe number of stages in the counter
BThe time delay of the lag circuit
CThe inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
DThe number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

SelectAnswer
AFiltering
BModulation
CDetection
DAll these choices are correct

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency modulation
BFrequency convolution
CFrequency conversion
DFrequency transformation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

SelectAnswer
AImage frequency
BRF input
CBeat frequency oscillator
DLocal oscillator

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

SelectAnswer
ALong path propagation
BOvermodulation
CInsufficient modulation
DBackscatter propagation

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

SelectAnswer
A2:1
B5:1
C1:2
D1:5

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AOmnidirectional in azimuth
BIsotropic
CHemispherical
DBi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 3 dB higher
BApproximately 1.5 dB higher
CApproximately 6 dB higher
DApproximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be fed with open wire line
BThey have poor harmonic rejection
CThey present low impedance on all design frequencies
DThey must be used with an antenna tuner

Figure G7-1