US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	60 meters
C	30 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	There is no age limit
C	21 years
D	18 years

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	100 watts
C	10 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Attenuator level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Impedance of coaxial cable

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	3200 watts
C	400 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1,733 picofarads
B	576.9 nanofarads
C	10.750 nanofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	BNC
C	Type N
D	RCA Phono

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
B	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
C	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
D	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Overmodulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Ohms per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
C	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

Figure G7-1