US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	30 amperes
C	25 amperes
D	20 amperes

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	General and Technician
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	Technician only

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	I have received and understood
C	We have worked before
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	Only at the maximum point
C	Only at the minimum point
D	At any point

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Less prone to overload
C	Faster response
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	15 dB
C	12 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	“Picket fencing”
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The peak value

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High voltage
C	High discharge current
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Digital
C	MMIC
D	Analog

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Inherently more stable
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Filter
C	RF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Directory
C	Trailer
D	Preamble

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	They are all the same length
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Sloper
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted V