US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable modulation limits
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	Electrical safety of the station

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	21 years
C	16 years
D	18 years

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Closing station now
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To follow standard radiogram structure
D	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Send a NAK code
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
B	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
B	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Antenna and feed line
C	Transmitter
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Susceptance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	The input voltage is multiplied by 4

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	Digital

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	Detection
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase inversion
C	Phase transformation
D	Phase convolution

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Image response
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	24 feet
C	33 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Resonant frequency is lower
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Polarization diversity

Figure G7-1