US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	All these choices are correct
C	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	All HF bands
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Technician only
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	All these choices are correct
C	The third party is not a US citizen
D	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Along the gray line
D	Toward the north

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
B	All of the above
C	A form of Packet Radio
D	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	3,583 picofarads
D	1,733 picofarads

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	All these choices are correct
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature response
B	Image response
C	Mixer interference
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	WSPR
C	SSB-SC
D	PSK31

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	50 ohms

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

Figure G7-1