US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	All these choices are correct
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	Technician only
C	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I have received and understood
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	We have worked before
D	Send slower

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
B	A digital protocol used with Winlink
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The F2 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two swept frequency tones
D	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	6 dB
C	15 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	346 volts
C	173 volts
D	245 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Screen grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
D	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
C	The signal is 3 dB over S9
D	The signal is S3 (weak signals)

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	450 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	50 ohms

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	21 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	They are all the same length
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high

Figure G7-1