US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	14250 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	100 watts
C	1500 watts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Key clicks
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	100 percent copy

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
B	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
C	The E region is not present
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	All these choices are correct
C	The ALC action distorts the signal
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Power output from a transmitter
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	B
C	Y
D	Z

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	40 volts
C	360 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	All these choices are correct
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
B	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio
B	The average
C	The sum and difference
D	The arithmetic product

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	Mark and space
C	On and off
D	Dot and dash

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To enable multiband operation