US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	3 kHz to 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	1 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Closing station now
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
B	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
B	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The E region
D	The D region

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	The ALC action distorts the signal
B	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
C	All these choices are correct
D	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Greater precision
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
B	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
B	Resistance is cancelled
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	400 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3,583 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	1,733 picofarads
D	576.9 nanofarads

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	6 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class A
C	Class AB
D	Class B

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Insufficient audio

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	The checksum overflows
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To enable multiband operation