US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	At the closest power pole ground electrode
C	In series with each ground lead
D	Where the feed lines enter the building

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
B	All these choices are correct
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A special hardware modem
D	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degrade ground wave propagation
D	Improve ground wave propagation

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Poor propagation at any time of day
B	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	World-wide propagation during daylight hours

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	Received frequency may become unstable
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	24 watts
C	60 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward biased
B	Reverse biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
B	Vestigial sideband
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	Amplitude compressed AM

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature response
B	Image response
C	Intermediate interference
D	Mixer interference

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long path propagation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	5:1
C	1:5
D	2:1

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Gain increases
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1