US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	All these choices are correct
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	All these choices are correct
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	I have received and understood
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
D	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
C	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
D	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just above the LUF
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Phone signals have high intelligibility
B	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
C	Signals have a fluttering sound
D	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Higher precision
D	Less prone to overload

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The battery charging system
C	All these choices are correct
D	The fuel delivery system

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	144 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The ratio
C	The sum and difference
D	The average

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Entire file received correctly
C	Request retransmission of the packet
D	Packet was received without error

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 100 feet
B	Ohms per 1,000 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	At the center of the antenna
C	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D	As high as possible above the ground

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Very low
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very high