US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	At the closest power pole ground electrode
C	Where the feed lines enter the building
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	Follow the voluntary band plan
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	No US stations should call
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
B	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
C	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are attenuated before reaching the destination

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	Z
C	B
D	X

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	12 volts
C	34 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	12 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class A
C	Class AB
D	Class C

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Pole and zero
B	Upper and lower half-power
C	Cutoff and rolloff
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
B	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Broadside to the loop

Figure G7-1