US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	Technician only
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	All these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only digital contacts

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	BK
C	AR
D	KN

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
C	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
B	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
C	All these choices are correct
D	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1500 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is divided by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	Peak and valley current points
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	16
C	6
D	8

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The sum and difference
C	The average
D	The ratio

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	AMTOR
C	MSK144
D	FT8

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	450 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	75 ohms

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Gain increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo