US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	17 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	18 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
B	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
C	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
D	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Nets have priority
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	100 percent copy
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	Toward the rising sun
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A special hardware modem
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Clearly audible speech
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 2 times

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	625 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	All these choices are correct
C	AM
D	FM

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	Filter
C	IF amplifier
D	RF amplifier

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Heterodyning
C	Phase inversion
D	Synthesizing

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	MFSK32
C	FT8
D	MSK144

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1