US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The portion above 29.5 MHz
D	The entire band

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The F2 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Standing wave ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Ohm
D	Siemens

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	625 watts
C	5000 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is divided by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is multiplied by 4

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	Its reactance increases

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	PL-259
C	RCA Phono
D	Type N

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	16
C	6
D	3

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Cutoff frequency
C	Rolloff frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	5:1
C	1:5
D	2:1

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Polarization diversity
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Harmonic suppression