US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	All these choices are correct
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	All these choices are correct
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Zero beat my signal
B	Stop sending
C	Send more slowly
D	I am troubled by static

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
B	A digital protocol used with Winlink
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Short-path
C	Faraday rotation
D	Scatter

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	RF interference
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass
B	Series-parallel
C	Shunt
D	Full-wave bridge

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	200 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	1,733 picofarads
C	10.750 nanofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Screen grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Inherently more stable
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Return loss
C	Insertion loss
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient audio
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Intercept point
C	Odd-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 100 feet
D	Decibels per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance