US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its duty cycle
D	Its power density

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable modulation limits
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	On any General or Technician class band segment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 4
C	Region 3
D	Region 2

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
C	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
D	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ohmmeter
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Bypass inductor
D	Reverse-biased diode

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Susceptance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 61 milliwatts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
B	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Analog
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Image response
C	Quadrature response
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
C	Upper case letters are sent with more power
D	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Isotropic
C	Hemispherical
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
B	Broadside to the plane of the halo
C	Opposite the feed point
D	On the same side as the feed point