US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	In series with each ground lead
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	21 years
C	16 years
D	18 years

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	All these choices are correct
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	100 percent copy
C	Key clicks
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	All these choices are correct
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced dip
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Ohm
D	Siemens

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	5000 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	67 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	75 ohms

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	500 MHz
C	40 GHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier noise figure
B	Demodulator stage bandwidth
C	Input amplifier gain
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
B	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
C	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
D	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer
B	Multiplier
C	Reactance modulator
D	Balanced converter

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 dB over S9
B	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
C	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
D	The signal is S3 (weak signals)

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Gain increases
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low

Figure G7-1