US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Switch to the opposite sideband
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Decrease power and continue to transmit

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	BK
C	AR
D	KN

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Gateway
B	Terminal Node Controller
C	RJ-45
D	Printer/Server

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A field strength meter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A sidetone monitor

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	A length of transmission line
C	All these choices are correct
D	A transformer

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	6 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	40 volts
C	25.5 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	All these choices are correct
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Filtering
B	All these choices are correct
C	Modulation
D	Detection

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature response
B	Mixer interference
C	Image response
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR
B	PSK31
C	SSB-SC
D	MFSK16

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
B	Broadside to the loop
C	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
D	In the plane of the loop