US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	RMS output from the transmitter

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	A US operator/primary station license
C	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have worked before
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	SSB
C	DSB
D	LSB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The D region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	Severely distorted audio
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.414
C	1.00
D	2.00

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Screen grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Control grid

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	Type N
C	PL-259
D	BNC

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	All these choices are correct
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Diodes

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Trailer
C	Directory
D	Header

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation