US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
B	All these choices are correct
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	All HF bands
C	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Observation of propagation and reception
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It provides more power output
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	I am ready to receive
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	All these choices are correct
D	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
D	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	All these choices are correct
D	The ALC action distorts the signal

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	A ground loop
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Excess intermodulation products
C	Excessive background noise
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Siemens
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	530 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	7 millihenries

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	High discharge current
C	Long life
D	High voltage

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency convolution

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Overmodulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Backscatter propagation

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner