US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the neutral wire
C	All wires
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	All these choices are correct
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It provides more power output
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It allows “hands free” operation

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Send a NAK code
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Improve HF long path propagation
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Receiver
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	All these choices are correct
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Ohm
C	Farad
D	Siemens

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	245 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	In the tunnel-effect region
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	16
D	8

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient audio
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Even-order
C	Odd-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 GHz
B	10.7 GHz
C	432 MHz
D	902 MHz

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:2
C	1:4
D	4:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

Figure G7-1