US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Electrical safety of the station
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Acceptable modulation limits

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	60 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Sending without error
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Send a NAK code
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce long delayed echoes
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
D	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
C	The E region is not present
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Greater precision

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	12 dB
B	15 dB
C	18 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Ohm
C	Siemens
D	Farad

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	5.9 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Analog
B	Programmable Logic
C	Digital
D	MMIC

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	Station equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Inverted L
C	Inverted V
D	Lazy H

Figure G7-1