US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 8
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 12

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
C	All these choices are correct
D	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	100 watts
C	1500 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Only contest stations
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	KN
C	AR
D	BK

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
B	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The peak value

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Full-wave
C	Synchronous
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced converter
B	Multiplier
C	Mixer
D	Reactance modulator

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	10.7 GHz
B	432 MHz
C	2.4 GHz
D	902 MHz

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Inverted V
C	Sloper
D	Lazy H