US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	All these choices are correct
D	Overvoltage on the hot wires

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	20 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When under automatic control
D	When messages are encrypted

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
B	Decrease power and continue to transmit
C	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
C	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of current to voltage
B	The ratio of voltage to current
C	The product of current and voltage
D	The product of current and reactance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	40 volts
C	360 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Neper frequency
B	Cutoff frequency
C	Rolloff frequency
D	Notch frequency

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Intercept point
C	Odd-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They have poor harmonic rejection

Figure G7-1