US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	160 meters
C	20 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	21 years
C	There is no age limit
D	18 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Increase your power
D	Send slower

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Along the gray line
D	Toward the north

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Short-path
C	Faraday rotation
D	Scatter

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Long path propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	24 feet
C	16 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high