US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	All these choices are correct
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 4
B	Region 3
C	Region 2
D	Region 1

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
C	Say “Breaker Breaker”
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	I have received and understood
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Send a NAK code
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are attenuated before reaching the destination

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
C	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.00
C	2.00
D	1.414

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual inductance
B	Displacement current coupling
C	Capacitive coupling
D	Mutual capacitance

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	All these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	FM
C	All these choices are correct
D	AM

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Filter
C	Carrier oscillator
D	RF amplifier

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Odd-order
C	Even-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	16 feet
C	33 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation

Figure G7-1