US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	They are not permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	No part
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	All these choices are correct
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	HF communication is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent transient overmodulation
C	To prevent key clicks on CW
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
B	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and voltage
B	The ratio of voltage to current
C	The product of current and reactance
D	The ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Filtering
C	All these choices are correct
D	Modulation

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Balanced converter
C	Reactance modulator
D	Mixer

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	MFSK32
C	FT8
D	AMTOR

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	1:4
D	4:1

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Hemispherical
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

Figure G7-1