US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	200 feet
C	50 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	100 watts
C	1500 watts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	USB
C	DSB
D	SSB

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	HF communication is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ohmmeter
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Susceptance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its reactance increases
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Forward biased
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	6
C	3
D	16

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Double-sideband modulated RF
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Audio extracted from the modulation signal

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	16 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Long path propagation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Overmodulation

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	1:5

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	42 feet
C	132 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Closer element spacing
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By varying the base loading inductance
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By extending and retracting the whip

Figure G7-1