US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its duty cycle
C	Its power density
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Unground the base of the tower

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	365 days
C	180 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
C	All these choices are correct
D	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only digital contacts

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
D	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Gain of a directional antenna
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	A length of transmission line
C	A transformer
D	All these choices are correct

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	0.30 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	8 kHz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Packet was received without error
B	Request retransmission of the packet
C	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
D	Entire file received correctly

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	5:1
D	1:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	8 feet
C	24 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger-diameter elements
B	Closer element spacing
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Loading coils in series with the element

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground