US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	In series with each ground lead
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They are not permitted
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It provides more power output
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	All these choices are correct
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have worked before
C	I have received and understood
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Toward the rising sun
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A form of Packet Radio
B	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
C	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
D	All of the above

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the LUF
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A pronounced dip
C	No change will be observed
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Transmitter
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	A ground loop
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	All these choices are correct
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	530 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	3.0 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	33.3 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its reactance increases
B	Catastrophic failure is likely
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Half-wave
C	Synchronous
D	Full-wave

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	Filtering
C	All these choices are correct
D	Detection

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
D	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Beat frequency oscillator
B	Local oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	RF input

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 GHz
B	432 MHz
C	10.7 GHz
D	902 MHz

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger-diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out-of-band operation