US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	On any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Toward the north
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve ground wave propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
C	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The battery charging system
C	The fuel delivery system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	Y
C	B
D	X

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	240.0 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	169.7 volts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	1,733 picofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Tight tolerance
D	High capacitance for a given volume

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	8
C	16
D	3

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
B	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
C	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Packet was received without error
B	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	At the center of the antenna

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground