US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	All these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	Electrical safety of the station

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	SSB
C	LSB
D	USB

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Linearity

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	6 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	FM
C	All these choices are correct
D	SSB

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Return loss
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The average
C	The arithmetic product
D	The ratio

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and off
B	High and low
C	Mark and space
D	Dot and dash

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	16 feet
C	21 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
C	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency