US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	All HF bands
D	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
B	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
C	All these choices are correct
D	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
D	They must be for other licensed amateurs

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	Send slower
C	We have worked before
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	All of the above
B	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
C	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D	A form of Packet Radio

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two swept frequency tones
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	2.00
C	1.414
D	1.00

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.3 volts

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Forward biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Odd-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	SSB-SC
B	WSPR
C	PSK31
D	MFSK16

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	1:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	5:1

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	They are all the same length
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground