US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The FCC
C	The IEEE
D	The control operator

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
C	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
B	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only digital contacts
D	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Send a NAK code
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Faraday rotation
C	Scatter
D	Short-path

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass inductor
D	Bypass capacitor

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1500 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Peak and valley current points
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	Zero
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The average
B	The ratio
C	The sum and difference
D	The arithmetic product

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is 3 dB over S9
C	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	They are all the same length
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1