US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable modulation limits

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	RMS output from the transmitter

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
B	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Transmitter
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Bond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The RMS value
D	The peak value

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	67 ohms

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	All these choices are correct
C	AM
D	FM

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Return loss
C	Q
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	60 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:4
C	1:2
D	4:1

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	132 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

Figure G7-1