US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	All these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
B	All these choices are correct
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Change frequency
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	All these choices are correct
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Radio wave propagation
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A Pi-network
C	A transformer
D	A length of transmission line

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	400 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	Digital

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Insertion loss
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Return loss

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
B	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
C	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
D	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Mixer
C	Reactance modulator
D	Balanced converter

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation decreases

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	24 feet
C	16 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point

Figure G7-1