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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
ALow duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
BHigh duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
CA higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
DA lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

SelectAnswer
AHigh voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
BLead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
CTin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
DRF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A20 meters
B30 meters
C12 meters
D160 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

SelectAnswer
AEncrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
BUnidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
COccasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
DAutomatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

SelectAnswer
APEP output from the transmitter
BRMS output from the transmitter
CPEP input to the antenna
DRMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

SelectAnswer
AOn any General or Technician class band segment
BOnly the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
COn any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
DOnly on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
BThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
CThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
DNo third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
ASuppressed sideband
BLower sideband
CDouble sideband
DUpper sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

SelectAnswer
AImmediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
BInform your local emergency coordinator
CAcknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
DImmediately cease all transmissions

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

SelectAnswer
AWe have worked before
BI have received and understood
CSend slower
DWe have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

SelectAnswer
ATraffic relay procedure net operation
BTransmission using Quick Response Protocol
CRemote piloted model control
DLow-power transmit operation

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

SelectAnswer
AFrequent retries or timeouts
BFailure to establish a connection between stations
CLong pauses in message transmission
DAll these choices are correct

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

SelectAnswer
AReduce long delayed echoes
BIncreases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
CCreates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
DImprove HF long path propagation

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

SelectAnswer
APropagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
BHF communications over the path are enhanced
CDouble-hop propagation along the path is more common
DPropagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

SelectAnswer
ABecause of temperature inversions
BBecause of the Doppler effect
CBecause it is the densest
DBecause it is the highest

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
BMinimum SWR on the antenna
CDesired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
DHighest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
ADesensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
BGeneration of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
CReceived power that interferes with SWR readings
DAll these choices are correct

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

SelectAnswer
AIt ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
BIt prevents signal overload
CIt ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
DIt prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ADecrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
BIncrease the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
CPrevent distortion of voice signals
DIncrease transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

SelectAnswer
ATo the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
BTo the battery using heavy-gauge wire
CTo the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
DTo the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

SelectAnswer
AResonance causes impedance to be very high
BResonance causes impedance to be very low
CImpedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
DImpedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A5000 watts
B8.75 watts
C625 watts
D2500 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

SelectAnswer
ATo improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
BTo accommodate the higher current of the primary
CTo ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
DTo prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt becomes capacitive
BIts reactance increases
CHarmonics are generated
DCatastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

SelectAnswer
AA small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
BA type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
CA connector designed for serial multiple access signals
DA type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

SelectAnswer
AThe ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
BThe output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
COnly one diode is required
DMore current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

SelectAnswer
AOutput is low when either or both inputs are high
BOutput is high when either or both inputs are low
COutput is low only when both inputs are high
DOutput is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

SelectAnswer
ARF amplifier
BCarrier oscillator
CFilter
DIF amplifier

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

SelectAnswer
APulse modulation
BPhase modulation
CMultiplex modulation
DAmplitude modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

SelectAnswer
ADetection
BHeterodyning
CIntermodulation
DRolloff

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

SelectAnswer
AMark and space
BDot and dash
CHigh and low
DOn and off

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

SelectAnswer
AA difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
BUsing more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
CFeeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
DOperating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A16 feet
B33 feet
C24 feet
D8 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

SelectAnswer
AThe reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
BRelative length depends on the frequency of operation
CThe reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
DThey are all the same length

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

SelectAnswer
AIt allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
BIt narrows the main lobe in elevation
CIt allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
DIt narrows the main lobe in azimuth