US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It heats body tissue
C	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
D	It cools body tissue

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	25 amperes
B	20 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	14250 kHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To be sure the contact will count for award programs

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
D	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	200 watts
C	3200 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Control grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	An analog mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	RF input
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Viterbi

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They have poor harmonic rejection

Figure G7-1