US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	All these choices are correct
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
C	The position of the Moon in its orbit
D	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Time of day and season
C	All these choices are correct
D	Path distance and location

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
C	The E region is not present
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce harmonic radiation
B	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To prevent excessive drive

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	15 dB
B	12 dB
C	6 dB
D	18 dB

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The battery charging system
C	The control computers
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	400 watts
C	200 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Rapid recharge
C	Long life
D	High discharge current

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Low power consumption
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	100%
C	50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
B	All these choices are correct
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The ratio
C	The average
D	The arithmetic product

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	5:1
C	2:1
D	1:5

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Front-to-back ratio decreases
C	Resonant frequency is lower
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1