US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 8
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	60 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The control operator
D	The FCC

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	365 days
D	30 days

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	All these choices are correct
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Any caller is welcome to respond
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of temperature inversions
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
C	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
D	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	All these choices are correct
D	A Pi-network

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1,733 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	3,583 picofarads
D	576.9 nanofarads

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal is 3 dB over S9
C	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	They are all the same length
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By deploying a capacitance hat