US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its power density
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Single sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To follow standard radiogram structure
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Greater precision

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
B	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
D	Place a ferrite choke on the cable

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 2 times

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and voltage
B	The ratio of voltage to current
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The product of current and reactance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	5000 watts
D	625 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Filtering
B	Modulation
C	Detection
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	16 kHz

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	4:1

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1