US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	Only the ground wire
C	All wires
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	All these choices are correct
C	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
D	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A special hardware modem
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At any point
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	All these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the highest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A field strength meter
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
B	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Susceptance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1060 watts
D	530 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	17 ohms
B	5.9 ohms
C	80 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	Rapid recharge
C	High voltage
D	Long life

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An analog mixer
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	A digital mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Insertion loss
D	Return loss

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	It is sideband sensitive

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Image response
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	SSB-SC
C	WSPR
D	PSK31

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Coil the radials
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the loop
B	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
C	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
D	In the plane of the loop