US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Electrical safety of the station
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Acceptable modulation limits
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	21 years
B	18 years
C	16 years
D	There is no age limit

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	All these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	I am ready to receive

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
C	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	All these choices are correct
C	A length of transmission line
D	A transformer

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	2500 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
B	Its thickness
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the counter
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation
B	Detection
C	Heterodyning
D	Rolloff

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Varicode

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying its body capacitance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By extending and retracting the whip

Figure G7-1