US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	All these choices are correct
C	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	All these choices are correct
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Switch to the opposite sideband
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
B	Always call on the station’s frequency
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Susceptance
C	Reluctance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	3,583 picofarads
C	1,733 picofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Control grid
C	Screen grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Inherently more stable
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	Zero
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase inversion
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Packet was received without error
C	Request retransmission of the packet
D	Entire file received correctly

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	16 feet
C	11 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	All these choices are correct
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
B	On the same side as the feed point
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	Opposite the feed point