US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When messages are encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I have received and understood
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
B	30 meters and 20 meters
C	60 meters and 40 meters
D	80 meters and 160 meters

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Chordal hop
C	Faraday rotation
D	Scatter

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	Received frequency may become unstable
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	An ohmmeter
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	All these choices are correct
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The control computers
C	The battery charging system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	6 watts
C	60 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Displacement current coupling
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Catastrophic failure is likely
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Its reactance increases

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class C
C	Class AB
D	Class A

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	3F1-F2
C	5F1-3F2
D	All these choices are correct

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the loop
B	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional