US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It heats body tissue
D	It cools body tissue

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	All these choices are correct
C	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	All these choices are correct
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	10 watts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	3 kHz to 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	I have received and understood
C	Send slower
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To follow standard radiogram structure
D	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
B	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
D	Place a ferrite choke on the cable

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High voltage
C	Rapid recharge
D	High discharge current

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Intercept point
C	Even-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Directory
C	Preamble
D	Trailer

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The physical length of the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	The number of elements on the boom
D	The spacing of each element along the boom

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Lazy H
C	Sloper
D	Inverted V

Figure G7-1