US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 16

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The IEEE
C	The FCC
D	The ITU

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	18 years
C	16 years
D	21 years

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Single phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	KN
C	SK
D	BK

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the rising sun
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	SSB
C	DSB
D	USB

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Scatter
C	Short-path
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Higher precision
C	Faster response
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
D	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	576.9 nanofarads
C	1,733 picofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	All these choices are correct
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier gain
B	Demodulator stage bandwidth
C	All these choices are correct
D	Input amplifier noise figure

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	5F1-3F2
C	2F1-F2
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground