US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
B	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must be for other licensed amateurs

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	No US stations should call
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the rising sun
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Toward the north

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Always call on the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	HF communication is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
D	HF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	All these choices are correct
C	Receiver
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Capacitive coupling
D	Mutual capacitance

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	All these choices are correct
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	An analog mixer
C	A digital mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Cutoff frequency
C	Neper frequency
D	Rolloff frequency

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	Amplitude compressed AM

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Beat frequency oscillator
B	RF input
C	Image frequency
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Gain increases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
B	Broadside to the loop
C	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
D	In the plane of the loop