US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS output from the transmitter
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	365 days
D	180 days

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	1500 watts
C	100 watts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	All these choices are correct
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Sending without error
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
D	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Reduce long delayed echoes

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
B	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
C	Signals have a fluttering sound
D	Phone signals have high intelligibility

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The control computers
C	The battery charging system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The peak value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
C	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
D	The opposite of fade margin

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower ground losses
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
B	Broadside to the loop
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

Figure G7-1