US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
C	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
D	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	Outside the building
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Send slower
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	425 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	15 hours to several days
C	28 days
D	14 days

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Clearly audible speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	“Picket fencing”
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The peak value
D	The reciprocal of the RMS value

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High stability
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	All these choices are correct
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Return loss
B	Insertion loss
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Q

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Intercept point
C	Second harmonics
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Preamble
C	Directory
D	Header

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Isotropic
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	All these choices are correct
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By deploying a capacitance hat
D	By extending and retracting the whip