US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	1500 watts
C	100 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	All these choices are correct
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	LSB
C	DSB
D	USB

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
C	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Peak and valley current points
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	A digital mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	An analog mixer

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Input amplifier gain
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Intercept point
C	Odd-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Lower ground losses

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground