US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	15 amperes

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am ready to receive
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	1 to 2 hours
C	20 to 40 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	12 dB
C	15 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	24 volts
C	34 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	100%
C	Less than 50%
D	50%

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	Zero

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Synthesizing
C	Phase inversion
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

Figure G7-1