US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	30 meters
C	11 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	16 years
C	21 years
D	There is no age limit

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
C	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
D	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two swept frequency tones
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Bond equipment enclosures together
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	Current and voltage are equal
D	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	An inductor in series
C	An inductor in parallel
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High stability
C	Tight tolerance
D	High capacitance for given volume

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A type-S to type-M adaptor
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave
B	Full-wave
C	Synchronous
D	Full-wave bridge

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	50%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	On and off
C	Dot and dash
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	1:1

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
B	In the plane of the loop
C	Broadside to the loop
D	Broadside and in the plane of the loop