US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The control operator
C	The IEEE
D	The ITU

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
B	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Under no circumstances except for emergencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	All these choices are correct
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F2 region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
D	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The control computers
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
B	Resistance is cancelled
C	Current and voltage are equal
D	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1060 watts
C	1500 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	300 microfarads
B	3.0 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	33.3 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Control grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Full-wave
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	16
C	6
D	3

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulated RF
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Double-sideband modulated RF
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Balanced converter
C	Mixer
D	Reactance modulator

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Entire file received correctly
B	Packet was received without error
C	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic suppression
B	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C	Polarization diversity
D	Wide bandwidth