US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
B	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
C	All these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	All these choices are correct
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	160 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A US operator/primary station license
B	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
D	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	All these choices are correct
D	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Bond equipment enclosures together
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	339.4 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The average
C	The ratio
D	The arithmetic product

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	PSK31
B	WSPR
C	SSB-SC
D	MFSK16

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	75 ohms

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization