US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	RMS input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When under automatic control
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Send slower
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Arcing at a poor electrical connection

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	All these choices are correct
C	Distorted speech
D	Excessive background noise

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Susceptance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.6 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	25.9 percent

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	Carrier oscillator
C	RF amplifier
D	IF amplifier

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The ratio
C	The sum and difference
D	The average

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	432 MHz
B	902 MHz
C	10.7 GHz
D	2.4 GHz

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
B	Broadside to the loop
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Broadside and in the plane of the loop