US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
C	All these choices are correct
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The control operator
C	The IEEE
D	The ITU

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	General and Technician
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Any caller is welcome to respond
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
B	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve ground wave propagation

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All these choices are correct
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	The ALC action distorts the signal

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Transmitter
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	“Picket fencing”
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	200 watts
C	400 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High stability

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	4 GHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	6
C	8
D	3

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Decibels per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Hemispherical
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground