US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	All HF bands

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS output from the transmitter
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only SSTV contacts
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only digital contacts
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	28 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	14 days

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F1 region
C	The F2 region
D	The E region

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	1500 watts
C	2120 watts
D	530 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	5.9 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	6 volts
C	12 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	3
C	6
D	8

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Intermodulation
C	Rolloff
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	4:1
D	1:4

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Hemispherical
C	Isotropic
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Polarization diversity
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Wide bandwidth