US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	All these choices are correct
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Time of day and season
C	All these choices are correct
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Greater precision

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Bypass
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Shunt

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	24 watts
C	60 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual inductance
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Capacitive coupling
D	Displacement current coupling

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Analog
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase transformation
C	Phase inversion
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Multiplier
C	Mixer
D	Balanced converter

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	FT8
C	AMTOR
D	MSK144

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	11 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance