US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	All these choices are correct
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	The received signal is more natural sounding
B	It provides more power output
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It allows “hands free” operation

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 2 hours per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	14 days
D	28 days

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Path distance and location
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Power output from a transmitter
B	Impedance of coaxial cable
C	Gain of a directional antenna
D	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	15 dB
C	12 dB
D	18 dB

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To increase the “Q” of the antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	5000 watts
C	2500 watts
D	8.75 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Screen grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	BNC
C	PL-259
D	RCA Phono

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	100%
D	50%

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Single sideband

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
B	Upper case letters are sent with more power
C	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	8 feet
C	24 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Polarization diversity

Figure G7-1