US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	Only the ground wire
C	All wires
D	Only the neutral wire

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	General and Technician
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Zero beat my signal
B	Send more slowly
C	I am troubled by static
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	All these choices are correct
C	Path distance and location
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The ALC action distorts the signal
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	A ground loop
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The ratio of current to voltage
C	The product of current and voltage
D	The product of current and reactance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is divided by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for a given volume
B	Tight tolerance
C	Much less leakage than any other type
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	4 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase transformation
C	Phase inversion
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Packet was received without error
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower ground losses
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
C	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies