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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

SelectAnswer
ABy the yellowish appearance of the gas
BAny ordinary smoke detector can be used
COnly with a carbon monoxide detector
DBy the odor

2. - E1A07

What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A5 watts EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
B50 watts PEP
C1 watt EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
D100 watts PEP

3. - E1B02

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
A15 kHz
B3 kHz
C20 kHz
D10 kHz

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

SelectAnswer
ABusiness-related messages for non-profit organizations
BCommunications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
CAll these choices are correct
DMessages intended for users of the maritime satellite service

5. - E1D07

Which HF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
AOnly the 40, 20, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meter bands
BOnly the 40, 30, 20, 15, 12, and 10 meter bands
COnly the 40, 20, 17, 15, and 10 meter bands
DAll HF bands

6. - E1E02

Who does Part 97 task with maintaining the pools of questions for all U.S. amateur license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AThe ARRL
BThe VEs
CThe FCC
DThe VECs

7. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

SelectAnswer
AFull privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra Class license, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
BThe operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Amateur Extra Class license privileges
CNone, they must obtain a U.S. license
DAll privileges of the Amateur Extra Class license

8. - E2A03

How is the signal inverted by an inverting linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal is passed through a mixer and the difference rather than the sum is transmitted
BThe signal is reduced to I and Q components and the Q component is filtered out
CThe signal is passed through a non-linear filter
DThe signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband

9. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

SelectAnswer
AChroma
BLuminance
CSpectral intensity
DHue

10. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

SelectAnswer
AIn the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
BIn the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
CIn the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
DAt the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

11. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
AWSPR
BAPRS
CMSK144
DHellschreiber

12. - E2E03

How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?

SelectAnswer
AStations take turns on alternate days
BAlternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals
CIt depends on the lunar phase
DBy exchanging ACK/NAK packets

13. - E3A12

What is the cause of auroral activity?

SelectAnswer
AMeteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
BAn extreme low-pressure area in the polar regions
CThe interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
DThe interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field

14. - E3B07

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThey are bent toward the magnetic poles
BThey become depolarized
CThey become phase locked
DThey become elliptically polarized

15. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

SelectAnswer
AUV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
BThe solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to x-ray flare levels
CThe ratio of x-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
DThe solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity

16. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

SelectAnswer
ASWR and frequency
BSWR and time
CRF amplitude and time
DRF amplitude and frequency

17. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

SelectAnswer
ARelative quality of the data
BThe relative time between measurements
CFrequency order of the measurements
DThe port or ports at which measurements are made

18. - E4C11

Why can an attenuator be used to reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

SelectAnswer
AThe attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
BSignals are attenuated separately from the noise
CThe attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
DAtmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation

19. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

SelectAnswer
AA properly terminated circulator at the output of the repeater's transmitter
BUtilizing a Class D final amplifier
CA band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
DUtilizing a Class C final amplifier

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

SelectAnswer
AReceived audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
BNearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
CThe audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
DFM signals can no longer be demodulated

21. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?

SelectAnswer
A44.72 MHz
B3.56 MHz
C1.78 MHz
D22.36 MHz

22. - E5B02

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AX
BY
CB
DG

23. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
ABy X and R values
BBy Y and G values
CBy phase angle and magnitude
DBy real and imaginary parts

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A0.577
B0.5
C0.866
D1.73

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

SelectAnswer
AOnly P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
BHoles in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
COnly N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
DExcess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator

26. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

SelectAnswer
AAs a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
BAs a rectifier in high current power supplies
CAs a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
DAs a constant voltage reference in a power supply

27. - E6C08

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

SelectAnswer
A3
B4
C1
D2

28. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a core in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
ATeflon and Delrin
BCobalt and aluminum
CFerrite and brass
DPolystyrene and polyethylene

29. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

SelectAnswer
AControlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
BPlate current that is controlled by a control grid
CThe ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
DNearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

30. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
AThe open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
BThe relative fraction of light that is converted to current
CThe output RF power divided by the input DC power
DCost per kilowatt-hour generated

31. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

SelectAnswer
AIt stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
BIt produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
CIt maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
DIt switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time

32. - E7B09

Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

SelectAnswer
AThe tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
BThe tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
CThe loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
DThe loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current

33. - E7C10

Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter band repeater duplexer?

SelectAnswer
AAn L-C filter
BA cavity filter
CA crystal filter
DA DSP filter

34. - E7D04

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

SelectAnswer
AA shunt regulator
BA series regulator
CA series current source
DA shunt current source

35. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
A1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
BThe square root of the product of input frequencies
CThe two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
DTwo and four times the original frequency

36. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce excess signal pressure levels
BProvide access for debugging software
CProvide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
DSelect the point at which baseband signals are generated

37. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A2.3 volts
B-0.23 volts
C0.23 volts
D-2.3 volts

38. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation
BPhotovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
CComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
DWide-band AF and RF power amplification

39. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BRemove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
CImprove accuracy by removing out-of-sequence codes from the input
DLower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution

40. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

SelectAnswer
AExtremely low-power contacts
BHigh-speed digital modes
CEME
DOFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

41. - E8C09

Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

SelectAnswer
AExcess 3 code
BExtended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
CBinary Coded Decimal Code
DGray code

42. - E8D06

What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

SelectAnswer
AFaster transmission rate
BSome types of errors can be detected
CThe signal can overpower interfering signals
DForeign language characters can be sent

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe input power level
BThe settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
CTransmission line length
DAntenna height

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A75 degrees
B25 degrees
C45 degrees
D7.5 degrees

45. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
BThe horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
CThe main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
DThe horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction

46. - E9D11

Which of the following conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

SelectAnswer
AResistive wire, such as spark plug wire
BSolid wire
CWide flat copper strap
DStranded wire

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A450 ohms
B50 ohms
C75 ohms
D62 ohms

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A8.5 meters
B10.6 meters
C7.0 meters
D13.3 meters

49. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

SelectAnswer
AThe current axis
BThe reactance axis
CThe resistance axis
DThe voltage axis

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt has no clearly defined null
BIt is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
CIt has a bidirectional pattern
DAll these choices are correct

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3