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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

SelectAnswer
ABeryllium Oxide
BMica
CZinc oxide
DUranium Hexafluoride

2. - E1A07

What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A1 watt EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
B100 watts PEP
C50 watts PEP
D5 watts EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)

3. - E1B11

What does PRB-1 require of regulations affecting amateur radio?

SelectAnswer
ANo limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
BUse of wireless devices in a vehicle is exempt from regulation
CReasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
DAmateur radio operations must be permitted in any private residence

4. - E1C11

Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BITU reciprocal license
CCEPT agreement
DIARP agreement

5. - E1D05

What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
CA photocopy of the station license
DA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee

6. - E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

SelectAnswer
AImmediately terminate the candidate's examination
BImmediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
CAllow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
DWarn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

7. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
BIt must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
CIt must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
DIt must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

8. - E2A13

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

SelectAnswer
AStore-and-forward
BNode hopping
CDigipeating
DMulti-satellite relaying

9. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

SelectAnswer
ASpectral intensity
BChroma
CHue
DLuminance

10. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

SelectAnswer
ABecause the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
BTo separate the calling stations from the DX station
CAll these choices are correct
DTo improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

11. - E2D04

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

SelectAnswer
ADoppler shift of beacon signals
BBandwidth compressed LORAN
CUltrasonics
DAPRS

12. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

SelectAnswer
AFatal Error Correction
BFirst Error Correction
CForward Error Correction
DFinal Error Correction

13. - E3A12

What is the cause of auroral activity?

SelectAnswer
AMeteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
BThe interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
CThe interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
DAn extreme low-pressure area in the polar regions

14. - E3B10

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector
BAtmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
CSignals travel faster along ionospheric chords
DThe MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation

15. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

SelectAnswer
ABy approximately 50 percent of the distance
BBy approximately four times the distance
CBy approximately 15 percent of the distance
DBy approximately twice the distance

16. - E4A11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
AConnect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
BConnect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
CLoosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
DLoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is more power going into the antenna
BThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
CThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
DThe transmitter is not properly neutralized

18. - E4C12

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's dynamic range?

SelectAnswer
ACPU register width in bits
BAnalog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
CRAM speed used for data storage
DAnti-aliasing input filter bandwidth

19. - E4D07

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

SelectAnswer
ARaise the receiver IF frequency
BSwitch from fast AGC to slow AGC
CDecrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
DIncrease the receiver front end gain

20. - E4E07

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

SelectAnswer
ALow inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
BUse of braided shielding material
CCommon-mode currents on the shield and conductors
DTying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield

21. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?

SelectAnswer
A1.78 MHz
B44.72 MHz
C22.36 MHz
D3.56 MHz

22. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage and current are in phase
BVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
CCurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees
DVoltage leads current by 90 degrees

23. - E5C05

What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

SelectAnswer
APhasor diagram
BFar field diagram
CVenn diagram
DNear field diagram

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

SelectAnswer
AWattless, nonproductive power
BPower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
CPower lost because of capacitor leakage
DPower consumed in circuit Q

25. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

SelectAnswer
AIn high-current rectifier circuits
BIn high-power audio circuits
CIn microwave circuits
DIn very low-frequency RF circuits

26. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

SelectAnswer
AExcessive inverse voltage
BExcessive junction temperature
CCharge carrier depletion
DInsufficient forward voltage

27. - E6C10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
A3
B2
C1
D4

28. - E6D12

What is inductor saturation?

SelectAnswer
AThe ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
BThe inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
CAdjacent inductors become over-coupled
DThe inductor windings are over-coupled

29. - E6E10

What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

SelectAnswer
AShorter circuit-board traces
BAll these choices are correct
CSmaller circuit area
DComponents have less parasitic inductance and capacitance

30. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

SelectAnswer
AAn LED and a phototransistor
BA frequency modulated helium-neon laser
CA lens and a photomultiplier
DAn amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

31. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

SelectAnswer
AAn XOR gate
BAn OR gate
CA flip-flop
DA multiplexer

32. - E7B17

Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?

SelectAnswer
ABecause they invert the sidebands causing distortion
BBecause they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
CBecause they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
DBecause they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal

33. - E7C10

Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter band repeater duplexer?

SelectAnswer
AAn L-C filter
BA DSP filter
CA crystal filter
DA cavity filter

34. - E7D11

What is the function of the pass transistor in a linear voltage regulator circuit?

SelectAnswer
AProvides a stable input impedance over a wide range of source voltage
BPermits a wide range of output voltage settings
CMaintains nearly constant output impedance over a wide range of load current
DMaintains nearly constant output voltage over a wide range of load current

35. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
ASpurious mixer products are generated
BMixer blanking occurs
CA beat frequency is generated
DAutomatic limiting occurs

36. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

SelectAnswer
ASelect the point at which baseband signals are generated
BProvide access for debugging software
CProvide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
DTo reduce excess signal pressure levels

37. - E7G04

What is meant by the "op-amp input offset voltage"?

SelectAnswer
AThe differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
BThe potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
CThe difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
DThe output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

38. - E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a neutralizing capacitor
BThrough link coupling
CThrough a capacitive divider
DThrough a tapped coil

39. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AA sine wave
BA square wave
CA sawtooth wave
DA cosine wave

40. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
BIt varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
CIt decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
DIt increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

41. - E8C07

What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

SelectAnswer
A5.76 kHz
B15.36 kHz
C4.8 kHz
D9.6 kHz

42. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a pseudorandom sequence also used by the receiving station
BIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
CIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
DA binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence

43. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

SelectAnswer
AThe standing wave ratio
BDistance from the transmitter
CTake-off angle
DSoil conductivity

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

SelectAnswer
A12 dB
B14 dB
C18 dB
D24 dB

45. - E9C09

Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
BA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with aÿ4:1 balun
CA multi-band trap antenna
DA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line

46. - E9D11

Which of the following conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

SelectAnswer
AResistive wire, such as spark plug wire
BStranded wire
CSolid wire
DWide flat copper strap

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A50 ohms
B75 ohms
C62 ohms
D450 ohms

48. - E9F08

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BFoam dielectric has higher velocity factor
CFoam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length
DFoam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits

49. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AReassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
BReassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
CReassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
DReassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

50. - E9H11

What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AA very sharp single null
BHigh radiation angle
CA very sharp peak
DBroadband response

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-1