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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

SelectAnswer
APolymorphic silicon
BPolyethylene
CPolychlorinated biphenyls
DPolytetrafluoroethylene

2. - E1A02

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

SelectAnswer
A1 kHz above the lower band edge
B300 Hz above the lower band edge
C3 kHz above the lower band edge
DThe exact lower band edge

3. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
BThe amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
CThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
DThe amateur station must cease operation

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BCommunications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
CBusiness-related messages for non-profit organizations
DMessages intended for users of the maritime satellite service

5. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
A33 cm and 13 cm
B70 cm only
C70 cm and 33 cm
D70 cm and 13 cm

6. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

SelectAnswer
AIssue the examinee the new or upgrade license
BPhotocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
CAll these choices are correct
DThree VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements

7. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

SelectAnswer
ANone, they must obtain a U.S. license
BAll privileges of the Amateur Extra Class license
CFull privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra Class license, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
DThe operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Amateur Extra Class license privileges

8. - E2A06

What are Keplerian elements?

SelectAnswer
AParameters that define the orbit of a satellite
BEncrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
CPhase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
DHigh-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes

9. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
ABy scanning each field from bottom to top
BBy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
CBy scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
DBy scanning two fields simultaneously

10. - E2C01

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the U.S.?

SelectAnswer
A/ followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
B/ followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
CNo additional indicator is required
D/R# where # is the district of the remote station

11. - E2D05

What is one advantage of the JT65 mode?

SelectAnswer
AThe ability to decode signals which have a very low signal-to-noise ratio
BPermits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
CUses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
DEasily copied by ear if necessary

12. - E2E13

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

SelectAnswer
APSK31
BAMTOR
C300 baud packet
D170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

13. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs in association with what phenomenon?

SelectAnswer
ALightning discharges
BSprites and jets
CGrayline
DWarm and cold fronts

14. - E3B10

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

SelectAnswer
AThe MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
BSignals travel faster along ionospheric chords
CAtmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
DThe signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector

15. - E3C03

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?

SelectAnswer
ATransequatorial
BSporadic E
CNVIS
DPolar

16. - E4A08

Which of the following measures SWR?

SelectAnswer
AAn ohmmeter
BA Q meter
CAn antenna analyzer
DA spectrum analyzer

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AShort circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
B50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
C50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
DShort circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit

18. - E4C09

Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

SelectAnswer
AEasier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
BFewer components in the receiver
CReduced drift
DImproved receiver noise figure

19. - E4D07

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

SelectAnswer
ARaise the receiver IF frequency
BDecrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
CIncrease the receiver front end gain
DSwitch from fast AGC to slow AGC

20. - E4E01

What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

SelectAnswer
AAny nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
BReceived CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
CRemoval of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
DRinging in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

21. - E5A15

Which of the following increases Q for inductors and capacitors?

SelectAnswer
ALower losses
BLower reactance
CLower self-resonant frequency
DHigher self-resonant frequency

22. - E5B12

What is admittance?

SelectAnswer
AThe inverse of Q factor
BThe inverse of impedance
CThe term for the gain of a field effect transistor
DThe turns ratio of a transformer

23. - E5C01

Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

SelectAnswer
ADelta
B+jX
C-jX
DOmega

24. - E5D10

How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

SelectAnswer
ABy multiplying the apparent power by the power factor
BBy dividing the apparent power by the power factor
CBy dividing the reactive power by the power factor
DBy multiplying the reactive power by the power factor

25. - E6A10

In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

SelectAnswer
A4
B5
C2
D6

26. - E6B10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

SelectAnswer
A1
B6
C5
D7

27. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

SelectAnswer
ATo cause the output to change states continually
BTo allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals
CTo increase the sensitivity
DTo prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

28. - E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AToroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
BToroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
CToroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
DToroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

29. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

SelectAnswer
ASilicon
BSilicon nitride
CSilicon dioxide
DGallium nitride

30. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

SelectAnswer
AA device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
BA device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
CA device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
DA digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

31. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

SelectAnswer
AIt switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
BIt produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
CIt stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
DIt maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

32. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AHigh filament voltage
BHigh power gain
CLow input impedance
DLow bandwidth

33. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

SelectAnswer
AThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals
BThe gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
CThe amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
DThe DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

34. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

SelectAnswer
ATo compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
BTo allow for remote control of the power supply
CTo allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
DTo provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications

35. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
BBy driving a product detector with a DSB signal
CBy using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
DBy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter

36. - E7F12

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

SelectAnswer
AFIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
BFIR filters can respond faster to impulses
CAll these choices are correct
DFIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements

37. - E7G06

What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AThe gain of the amplifier at a filter's cutoff frequency
BThe frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
CThe maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
DThe frequency at which the amplifier's offset voltage is zero

38. - E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a neutralizing capacitor
BThrough a capacitive divider
CThrough link coupling
DThrough a tapped coil

39. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?

SelectAnswer
ANumerical analysis
BDifferential analysis
CVector analysis
DFourier analysis

40. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

SelectAnswer
A1/3
B6000
C2000
D3

41. - E8C04

What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?

SelectAnswer
AZero-sum character encoding
BReed-Solomon character encoding
CUse of sinusoidal data pulses
DUse of trapezoidal data pulses

42. - E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

SelectAnswer
AThe high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
BIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
CThe receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
DSignals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver

43. - E9A13

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

SelectAnswer
AApparent power
BHalf-power bandwidth
CPower factor
DEffective radiated power

44. - E9B09

What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

SelectAnswer
AMethod of Moments
BCalculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
CMutual impedance analysis
DGraphical analysis

45. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
BA dipole configured to provide forward gain
CA half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends
DA type of ground-plane antenna

46. - E9D05

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

SelectAnswer
AThe SWR is reduced
BThe frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
CThe front-to-back ratio decreases
DThe front-to-back ratio increases

47. - E9E05

How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

SelectAnswer
AThe driven element reactance must be inductive
BThe driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
CThe driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
DThe driven element reactance must be capacitive

48. - E9F05

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A4.3 meters
B5.3 meters
C10.6 meters
D3.5 meters

49. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

SelectAnswer
ASWR
BPoints with constant reactance
CFrequency
DPoints with constant resistance

50. - E9H11

What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
ABroadband response
BHigh radiation angle
CA very sharp peak
DA very sharp single null

Figure E6-1

Figure E6-2